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Question About Baatil Means Of Earning
Assallam u alaikum, hello there.
there used to be always a question in my mind that what is the source of Quran that tells us that unlawful means earning are also unlawful to use, per themselves.
then the Quran in 4:29 tells us to not consume wealth of others through Baatil.
now as far as I am aware, Batıl word is applied for universal and agreed upon evil things like theft, lying, embezzlement and fraud. in all these things the person is deceived and his wealth is usurped by someone else.
But the question comes of personal sins that are not universally considered as batıl and we consider them sin because of our shariah understanding. Like fornication. as per my understanding, fornication doesn’t come under universally agreed upon immorality. and if batıl word only includes things that are universally immoral then according to which law or it’s corollary of Quran, do we say that earning of Fornication is also Haram? and other sins that are not considered universal sins etc?
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1 Reply
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Question About Baatil Means Of Earning
updated 2 weeks, 1 day ago
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For a Muslim, anything declared haram in Shariah remains haram, and any income derived from it is also considered haram.
The basis for prohibitions in Islam lies in five fundamental principles outlined in verse 7:33. Some prohibitions are explicit, as you mentioned, while others may not be as apparent. However, with some reflection, the universal rationale behind their prohibition becomes clear. For instance, consider fornication. It is universally acknowledged that extramarital relations are impermissible. Following the same principle, fornication is also prohibited as a preventative measure (Sadd-e-Zariya).
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