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Quran 7:33 – Why Does "Ithm" Mean “Usurping The Rights Of Others”?
Asalamoalaikum,
Many times when listening to notable scholar Javed Ghamidi, I have heard him say that the ruling for haram in Islam are all dependent on one verse:
Allah says [Qur’an 7:33]:
Say: [The] only [things that] my Lord has forbidden are: indecency, what is apparent thereof and what is concealed; and sin; and wrongful oppression; and that you associate [partners] with Allah for which He has not revealed any authority; and that you say things about Allah of which you have no knowledge.
In the above verse, sin (for which the arabic word is “ithm”) is mentioned as one of the forbidden things by Allah. However, Javed Ghamidi translates ithm as “usurping the rights of others”, given that it wouldn’t make sense for ithm to have a vague meaning as sin when everything else mentioned is also a sin. In my own research, I find that ithm does mean “usurping the rights of others”. This is based on verses which include: 2:85, 2:182, 2:188, 4:20, 58:9.
Is it based on these verses that ithm means “usurping the rights of others”or is there another reason?
JazakAllah
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14 Replies
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Quran 7:33 – Why Does "Ithm" Mean “Usurping The Rights Of Others”?
updated 2 years, 9 months ago
3 Members
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14
Replies
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The following video explains ithm in ample detail:
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JazakAllah Sir. Is there any particular portion of the video that I should watch? Or should I watch the entire recording?
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The video keeps stopping because of which I’m missing key points. Is the recording available without stoppages?
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I don’t think we have an alternate recording available. You can refer to Al-Bayan for further clarification on this matter. Hope that might complement the missing parts in the video.
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I will take a look. JazakAllah!
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You can also see Ameen Ahsan Islahi’s Tadabbur e Quran which usually goes at length in discussing linguistics of Quranic verses. Both Tafseer are available in Ghamidi App available at Play store.
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I will check it out. Unfortunately, I am an extremely slow urdu reader as I never learned how to read or write in the language. Thank you!
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In short, Ithm is used both in broader sense including all the sins and also in the specific sense of usurping someone’s rights. But whenever it is used in between different sins like in this case preceded by ‘Fawahish’ and succeeded by ‘Oppression’, then it always means the latter i.e. usurping someone’s rights.
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JazakAllah for your help. Javed Ghamidi was also making a point about Fawahish being used for all sins, but that its usage limits it to the sins related to the body. This portion of the video was cutting out. Do you know if there’s anything else that he added (at around the 4-minute mark). Sorry for all the questions!
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For understanding of word “Fawahish”, please refer to the link below from 23:44 to 27:14
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For a short response on translation of word ‘ithm’ by Ghamidi Sahab, please refer to the link below from 25:11 to 26:14
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JazakAllah Sir. I haven’t come to the site for a while, so I totally missed your answer.
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Is it possible that you can tell me what exactly was being discussed in the following 30-second clip? The recording kept cutting off.
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Gvc4d8-v0GVoi4IqEk8hTti6RK9f8Rn2/view?usp=sharing
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Please see:
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