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State Law And Religiousaw
Assalamualaikum
From 16.27 to 16.44
If the end goal of religious law is purification (unlike state law) then why does Quran says :
Al-Quran
Surah No. 7 – Ayah No. 33
أَعُوذُ بِاللَّهِ مِنَ الشَّيْطَانِ الرَّجِيمِ
بِسْمِ اللّٰهِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِيْمِ
قُلۡ اِنَّمَا حَرَّمَ رَبِّىَ الۡـفَوَاحِشَ مَا ظَهَرَ مِنۡهَا وَمَا بَطَنَ وَ الۡاِثۡمَ وَالۡبَـغۡىَ بِغَيۡرِ الۡحَـقِّ وَاَنۡ تُشۡرِكُوۡا بِاللّٰهِ مَا لَمۡ يُنَزِّلۡ بِهٖ سُلۡطٰنًا وَّاَنۡ تَقُوۡلُوۡا عَلَى اللّٰهِ مَا لَا تَعۡلَمُوۡنَ ۞
Translation:
Tell them ( Muhammad): ‘My Lord has only forbidden indecent acts, whether overt or hidden; all manner of sin; wrongful transgression; and [He has forbidden] that you associate with Allah in His divinity that for which He has sent down no sanction; and that you ascribe to Allah things of which you have no sure knowledge that they are from Him.’
Wrongful transgression is on what state law’s base is and it is forbidden by Quran (a religious law giving book).
And does Quran uses the word “haram” here and at other places as a term as we use today or some other?
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1 Reply
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State Law And Religiousaw
updated 2 years, 5 months ago
2 Members
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Purification of moral is one of objective. The verse u mentioned is not referring to state la. It ask muslim to avoid injustice etc. You can find more detail in thread
حَرَّمَ is used to forbid
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