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Can Ijma Be Erased Or Altered?
I wanted to know that is there any possibility that any hukum or independent prohibition be delivered to the people by prophet and spreaded to the level of Ijma. But after a few centuries that or after just a few generations later the command lost it’s status of Ijma and tawattur. And the next generations received it only through ahadith?
Like for example if we take example of prohibition of photography, we see that this prohibition was not transfered as an Ijma or tawattur, so hence we conclude that this must not be an independent injuction but would be a dependent injunction on some other sources of prohibition that came to us through ijma and tawattur. So hence after looking at all the ahadith we get the picture that it was actually a source of violation of Tawheed, and since prohibition of Images only comes to us through Ahadith, thats why we conclude that this was not an independent prohibition (of Images intrinsically) but actually a branch of prohibition of shirk which at that era seeped into images.
So my question is that, what if prohibition of Images was of level of Ijma and tawattur but that Ijma eith time was lost, so we only get such prohibition through Hadith and then we conclude with the principle that Hadith do not have an independent injuction in themselves but are explanation of independent commands that are found in sources transferred in ijma and tawattur (Quran and Sunnah), and so, with this principle in mind we concluded that picture making is not intrinsically Haram but because of shirk element. So is there such big possibility? And what if such thing has happened etc
Ps, did i understand the procedure that i mentioned above, through which we reach the stance of like that if ghamidi sahab, correctly?
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3 Replies
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Can Ijma Be Erased Or Altered?
updated 2 years ago
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Yes, it is possible that a Mutawatar injunction gets lost with the passage of time, as it happend in the cases of Jews and Christians that they lost the the propher mehtod of saying of prayers and other injucntions. But it did not happend to Muslims.
The example you gave is not appropriate here. Panting was never a Mutawatar injunction. It was reported in Ahadith and was an apllication of the principle as you rightly put, to prohibite polytheistic illustrations.
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@irfan76 and sir did the procedure i mentioned above was correct? That since ahadith cannot have an independent injuction, so independent prohibition of painting cannot be taken through that Hadith, so the only thing left is to relate it with some prohibition already stated in Quran or Sunnah and hence we reach evident conclusion that it’s because of violation of tawheed
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Yes. Ahadith are the source of the applications of some principles mentioned in the Quran or Sunnah Mutawatirah.
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