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Marrying An Atheist Woman
Posted by Mohammad Ali Soomro on September 4, 2023 at 8:17 pmI wanted to ask that since marrying a polytheistic woman is prohibited, does İslam permit a Muslim man to marry an atheist woman? if for example there’s some similar situation in the time of sahabah when İslam is fully dominant and there’s no big possibility of children getting influenced by some other belief, then would a marriage between atheist woman and Muslim man be allowed?
Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 1 year, 2 months ago 3 Members · 20 Replies -
20 Replies
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Marrying An Atheist Woman
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Ahsan
Moderator September 4, 2023 at 11:35 pmAnswer to your question is no. for rationale behind marriage in Islam Please see Discussion 42495 • Reply 42921
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 5, 2023 at 12:07 am@codename.AJK sir but it for example the situation becomes similar to that of christians at the time of sahabah. similarly if an atheist woman is living totally in a recessive situation under Muslim dominance and there’s no major risk of atheism spreading in the house, just like at that time there was no major risk of Christianity or Judaism spreading in the home. so in that situation although there is no shirk found in her belief, according to the ayat where Muslims are prohibited to marry mushrik, they still won’t be allowed legally to marry? is it because not believing in existence of Allah is as big of a sin as believing in his existence but with partners. am I right?
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Ahsan
Moderator September 5, 2023 at 9:27 amIf you understand the rationale behind marriage then its easy to understand why it will not be allowed. Mother has lot of influence. Even though conditions may not be right but her influence on kids cnanot be denied.
It would be total conjucture to assume what would have happened at that time. So I wont comment on it.
We cannot declare anything sin unless we have argument from Quran o sunnah. Only God can decide what is bigger sin.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 5, 2023 at 9:43 am@codename.AJK but sir for suppose if the influence of mother is same as it was of a Christian or Jew woman at that time. would the marriage be legally correct? or prohibited?
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Ahsan
Moderator September 5, 2023 at 7:20 pmSince it is allowed to marry Christians and jews so we can not prohibit it.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 6, 2023 at 11:40 pm@codename.AJK sir if someone interprets this ayat of concession about marriage with ahl e kitab, as that because only these 2 groups (Jews and christian) were mentioned with words that they are made halal, so now no third group can be said to be halal for marriage. like if some religion forms today where people are monotheist like Muslims and they are living under total Muslim dominance. the religion is called XYZism but marrying woman of this religion is not allowed because even though they are monotheist (and they don’t have shirk beliefs like christians) and live under Muslim dominance, but because they do not belong from the groups of ahl e kitab, so it is prohibited to marry their woman. if someone interprets the ayat like this then what would we say to them?
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Ahsan
Moderator September 6, 2023 at 11:47 pmPlz refer to videos mentioned by Umer sb in the post above. It talks about rationale of marriage in Islam.
If you understand that then it will be better to stay away from marrying even Jews and Christians.
About your questions regarding marrying other type of monotheist, then it will ultimately come down to the person based on what he/she believes right.Personally I agree with Ghamidi sb that Muslims should avoid marrying outside Muslim community.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 6, 2023 at 11:51 pm@codename.AJK sir just i wanted to ask that can the concession of Jew and christian be legally extended to that group? or it would not be extended even if the group is at a similar or one step better stance from ahl e kitab in terms of shirk etc, just because in Quran only ahl e kitab is mentioned so strict literature is to be followed and this concession cannot be extended to third group? please clarify
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Ahsan
Moderator September 6, 2023 at 11:57 pmOne may argue it can be extended.
However, I think that the concession was made as they follow divine religion and have divine books.
Therefore same relaxation cannot be made for other type of monotheist.But I will request @Irfan76 sb to give his scholarly opinion on that.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 7, 2023 at 12:07 am@codename.AJK sir I understand this point. just a little clarity that if for example a group of people start to believe all that which christians believe, and what Jews belief and study the same divine books as christians for guidance, and they don’t believe Jesus to be son of Allah. but they are different from Muslims that they don’t believe prophethood of Hazrat Muhammad (S) or for example they done believe prayer to be a part of Islam and they reject it and they call themselves neither Muslims not christians but rather something else. so would such group woman be allowed? would they be considered ahl e kitab? because they follow bible or other divine books? and hence would their woman be allowed on Muslims?
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Ahsan
Moderator September 7, 2023 at 1:09 amIrfan sb can give better opinion on this.
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Dr. Irfan Shahzad
Scholar September 7, 2023 at 4:11 amJews are monotheists, and Christians claim to be monotheists with Taweel, therefore Muslims are allowed to marry their women. The same concession can be extended to other communities who claim to be monotheists. However, atheism (not agnosticism) is as great a violation as blatant polytheism since both are lies. Therefore a Muslim is not supposed to marry an atheist.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 7, 2023 at 4:20 am@Irfan76 so sir in the ayat of marrying ahl e kitab. it is mentioned that their women are halal. and since only mention of woman is made, so marriage of a Muslim girl with ahl e kitab man would be Haram as said by ulama. but in the same ayat describing the things made halal today, is woman of “Ahl e Kitab” but we don’t restrict this allowance only and only to Ahl e Kitab but to any religion which doesn’t practice open polytheism and are real/proclaimed monotheistic ( + they live under total Muslim dominance like christians at that time).
so can this reason be used that the distinction between these 2 are that at the time of revelation of this ayat. men and women are almost equal in number, so only a single mention of woman would only allow woman of Ahl e Kitab and not men. but major religions present and dealt with Muslims were mushrik, Jews and Christians. so regarding mushrik it’s clear and regarding Jews and Christians, it is made clear in this ayat. but this doesn’t necessarily mean that any future religion apart from Jews and Christians won’t be allowed, as in case of man and woman distinction. because at that time only these 2 religions were present and dealt with Muslims apart from mushriks. am I right sir?
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Dr. Irfan Shahzad
Scholar September 7, 2023 at 4:33 amExtension and restriction are based on Illah (cause). The cause I mentioned in the answer above. Blatant polytheism and also blatant atheism are not accepted however interpretive polytheism or Taweel of polytheism is tolerated.
Concession is given only for Muslim men to marry women of the people of the book, this concession cannot be extended to Muslim women. The principle is, that a concession is not extended beyond its scope. Concession requires to be confined.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 7, 2023 at 4:35 am@Irfan76 okay sir so I guess the concession of marrying another religion apart from these 2 but only if they are monotheist and under intellectual dominance of Muslim, am I right sir?
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Dr. Irfan Shahzad
Scholar September 7, 2023 at 4:57 amRight
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 7, 2023 at 5:09 am@Irfan76 and sir if for suppose let’s say in future in a Muslim intellectual dominant society, an ahl e kitab man lives and if he wants to marry a woman of Muslims and would live in the girls house (Ghar jamaayi damad) then would such marriage be allowed? because illat of open polytheism is not there, illat of Muslim dominance is not there, illat of woman going to man’s house and eventually children getting significantly influenced by father side religion is not there. I mean these conditions that made an ahl e kitab woman halal, are found in a reversed role of Ahl e kitab man, would such marriage be halal?
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Dr. Irfan Shahzad
Scholar September 7, 2023 at 5:19 amMan is Qawwam by nature. Secondly, rules are made in general. Exceptional cases too have to follow the rules. For example, if a man for some reason is immune to intoxication, he is still not allowed to drink wine or some other intoxicants.
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Mohammad Ali Soomro
Member September 7, 2023 at 5:40 am@Irfan76 so sir the case of another religion (other than Ahl e Kitab) monotheist woman allowed for marriage would be considered because they are not exceptional cases but just they were not mentioned because they were not needed as they were not being dealt with Muslims at that time, so that doesn’t make it like the case of Ahl e kitab man like above, and hence allowable, am I right sir?
secondly sir if the woman of Ahl e kitab doesn’t pray despite of accepting that prayer is ordained by god and she doesn’t pray it. then would still she be allowed to marry Muslim man?
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Dr. Irfan Shahzad
Scholar September 10, 2023 at 12:23 amYes. If marriage to an Ahl e Kibat woman is allowed with a cause, that is believing in monotheism even if with a Taweel which is acceptable, this cause is extended to others of the same kind. This is not allowed for men, no there is no chance for a non-Muslim man to marry a Muslim woman.
To pray or not to pray does not exclude one from his or her religion unless it is with a blatant kufr. Therefore she is allowed to be married to a Muslim man.
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