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Reasons For Continuity Of Prophets In Past
Why was it necesaary to independently send prophets from its initiation…for example if moses was given hidayah and he did which we call as basharat and inzar…
Why from initial pt. ….it was not made dependent upon ijma and tawatur….
Lets say okay only sharia was given and somehow tawatur can not transmit it….then if sharia was preserved in whatsoever manner …why inzar was not preserved as such…
Okay then u may say no it was to establish religion…then my qn is then how these only two things are to be made as missions for messengers…why can not more than these missions has to be considered….if Quran has mentioned only these …it can no way mean no now it can not be taken for any other mean…i mean missiins….
Basically what i am saying is what is meant in its logical sense….(of bashara and inzar)…
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29 Replies
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Reasons For Continuity Of Prophets In Past
updated 4 months, 2 weeks ago
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29
Replies
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The world runs the way it runs. When it became possible to preserve the the divine book, shariah and Sunnah of the prophet, the prophethood stopped. When such means we’re not available the prophet kept coming to different nations.
In the case of bank Israel ijma and tawstur got disturbed because of the calamities fell upon the whole community and due to their own corruption.
The divine message and its transmission work under the circumstances at hand.
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If its like that…then after moses and prophets after him established now it….so then why prophecy was revived near jesus,s time
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And also you didnt give answere…that if torah was preserved upto last moment….almost…then how we can say inzar couldnt have been preserved….
Further what is actually the nature of inzar….
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If Tawatur was now established by moses and proohets after him and there was no such big incident on bani israel …then why to revive it…if it is already present….
And also above raised qns i need answers…..will be yours greater kind
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Torah doesn’t have inzar actually. It was the prophet who did inzar. In the case of Qur’an inzar too was made a part of it to preserve.
Inzar means to warn people of the coming of the hereafter and the accountability, Reminding them not live a headless life but look around to see the signs of God and His oneness Ans when they accept Him as their lord they need to obey Him. If they fail they would face the consequences.
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Lets make it today final…
1)if torah was preserved why were not that asbaab for i zar to preserve
2)if after moses tawatur was established by other prophets…so why near jesus time it was revived….
3)if pt. Is of ideological corruption and then for that prophets had to come then its necessity of this time as well….many things have multiple opinions
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Even honest jews tiday feel…see..
Inzar….so what kind of arguments are said…
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You may need to know history of bani Israel to learn how they lose the original text of the Torah. Therefore it was necessary to give a new book. Moreover, Torah includes mostly the shariah about the collective affairs. For their individual matters their prophets were there to guide them.
The traditions of the prophet and shariah of of Torah were burdened and overlapped with the interpretations of the scholars which the Qur’an calls Israal and Aghlaal. A prophet was required to remove them.
Some laws were specific to bani Israel.
Some strictness in the laws was made a a punishment to bani Israel.
Therefore, It was necessary to give a new shariah to which make the shariah of God independent of such problems.
Inzar could never be preserved before.
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Yes right many things…so is it that jesus also solved conflicted areas of torah ….so he was also given sort of sharia…
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Now i can understand….
That its must that in world after prophet saw….arabic language was preserved so to get to real meaning…..this is why we say it were asbaab of this world which made it possible..
Nice sir….very nice
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1. Torah was not preserved in its original text.
2. Jesus did not revive ijma and Tawstur he came to do inzar.
3. The sources of Deen are now preserved. Any corruption or mistake can be rectify with reference to the original sources.
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So can i say sir….A quraniv ayah has only 1 interpretation….and we have to analyse which is real meaning….
Linguistics and language have been preserved…..!beautiful
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So there arises 2 qns:
1)Means as well that prophet jesus was sort of sharia prophet as well
2)can we say only 1 interpretation is possible even today as well…because arabic is preserved…which must be then
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But why also it seems that there was small gap between prophets like yahya as and jesus…
Then already it couod have been done by yahya as
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Jesus did not bring a new shariah. He followed the same Torah. Therefore Qur’an says he was given Torah and gospel. Gospel doesn’t contain shariah. It is about the true spirit of faith.
Qur’an means what it means. There cannot be more than one meaning or interpretation of its message or directive. Its language is preserved and we can determine by using linguistics tools the single interpretation of the Qur’an.
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You did nit answer why yusha ibn noon as came immediately after moses;
1)if immediately after moses inzar nad law are preserved then for what yusha as came.
2)what about Tawatur ,why it could not preserve Inzar….if it could only been somehow preserved immediately after moses by book…then why it was not included in torah…so then no prophet was needed.
3)original recitation would nit have been lost after 2 days demise of prophet moses.
If even after all such already compatible conditions prophet came then
Even today then prophet must come….
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Also before moses without prophets continuation…then from where inzar came…
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Mostly the political matters of bani Israel were run by the non prophetic persons. While the prophets were there to guide and warn.
Bani Israel faced such circumstances that they lost their book. They were exiles and subjugated for a long time. It was due to the circumstances that their book was not preserved in its original language, let alone inzar which couldn’t be save even the one done by Jesus.
Then came through Qur’an and we see it was preserved. Shariah and inzaar both are there. So there is no need of any prophet further.
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You are 100% true sir….but my qn was when there were no such tragedies…amd if politics was goal of prophets then that is also today important.
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Sir is there any article which covers my all pts…which i mentioned…
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You are suggesting a whole new scheme to God. God didn’t do that. This is his scheme what we see. He operates within the circumstances. If He plays miraculously all that way, the scheme of test cannot run. If his message stayed when circumstances didn’t allow it would be a miracle which would end that test of believing. No one would have an excuse to disbelieve.
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Sir ghamidi sahab told only for these 2 missions proohets came….and i said if this is case then it was so at time of moses in perfection so why proohet tgen immediately came…
I am nkt suggesting Allah swa any new scheme.
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My qn is what circumtances were not present immediately after moses which lead to send prophets immediateky after moses.
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Qn is not general….
Its immediately after moses what happened…rest i understood very well…
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Bani Israel were not stable in the land they lived. They were a tiny tribe in surrounded by polytheistic religions and they got inspired by them.
They were constantly under that threat of attack by their neighbouring powers.
they were being trained to be carrier of the message of God and spread it to other nations.
Such factors demanded that they should be supervised by the prophets.
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So sir2qns last to answer:
1)if torah as law was preserved for some time ,why was not for that time inzar preserved in it like in Quran today….upto when it didnt faced calamities….why prophets were send instead.
2)if already sunnah had preserved it then why to send prophets immediately after moses to do inzar…
THESE QNS ARE ON IMMEDIATE TIME AFTER MOSES……NOT GENERALLY WHAT HAPPENED TO ALL OVER BANI ISRAEL
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Yes now it is crystal clear……100%
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May Allah reward you sir…..
Please pardon me if my approach was agressive…..
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No problem
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