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Surah Talaq 65:4
In Tafseer al Bayaan in the context of surah At-Talaq 65:4, it is explained that the verse is talking about women who have not yet menstruated despite having reached the age of menstruation. The reason given is that لم is used, which is total and strong negation. I have two questions regarding this.
1) Why is لم strong and total negation? Is it because لم puts the present tense back into the past tense?
2) Even if لم is total and strong negation, how does it imply women of mature age and not younger age?
I thank you for your help.
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