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Literary Form Of The Quran
So I will try to explain what’s bothering me. So I have watched much of Ghamidi Sahb’s videos on the inimitable nature of the Quran, where I have understood his argument, that the literary claim is just one aspect, but the biggest aspect is the place where Quran comes from, its conviction, its flow, its philosophical depth, the topics it addresses and the way it addresses them as a word of finality, that too without a hint of evolution in its style or its ideas, which is in reality its true ijaz placing it beyond human origins. That I understand. My question is about it’s literary form. So there is a unanimous sort of agreement in academia that Quran’s literary form is saj. https://www.jstor.org/stable/4183221 This is a renowned paper that delves deep into this topic, building on the works of our own medieval exegetes and scholars like Ibn Al-Athir, who themselves did a critical analysis of the Quran’s text, and said that the Quran contains a great deal of saj, and is present in some way in almost every Surah, with some being completely in the form of saj. So now, we have generally always heard that the Quran was completely new, revolutionary, and unprecedented in every single aspect, and a huge focus has always been on its literary aspect. So content-wise, that does hold true in an absolute way, but in its structure and its literary form, it wasn’t unprecedented then? If it was in the form of saj (and yes I know it follows saj in a very free way and has some unique aspects even in the saj category but still the paper goes to great lengths in demonstrating the use of saj in Quran in a lot of places), then Allah revealed it in a literary form known to the Arabs at that time? The paper says that largely why saj has not been associated with Quran by various scholars is because it was associated with the speech of the diviners and soothsayers as they spoke in saj and it is a sign of respect. But it demonstrates that textually it is in a form of Saj. The Quran obviously refutes that it is not the saying of a poet or a soothsayer very strictly, so did the Arabs also confuse it as such because of it being in saj? How do we reconcile this with our traditional views? Was it revealed in the most eloquent form of saj, and is the literary form of the Quran not unprecedented then and was known to the Arabs? Has Ghamidi Sahab written anywhere or spoken on this topic in detail that I can access? Please shed some light. @UmerQureshi @faisalharoon @Irfan76
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