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A Question Regarding Branch Application Of An Ayat
Hello there Assallam u alaikum,
https://youtu.be/nrtgNn8weG0?si=03oKnk3S1MZDMA4r
in this video ghamidi Sahab first tells about how the Mushrikeen of Arabs used to do shirk. one of the shirk things was they used to do bidah, which is like accepting someone else’s right to make things halal and Haram and this is like making someone associate of Allah, a shirk. secondly the other was outer manifestation of shirk like Thaan (station) of idols for Nazr and taking someone else’s name while slaughtering an animal.
so when a person does slaughter an animal other than Allah’s name, then because it is associated with Shirk and belief impurity, it becomes Haram to consume and taking Allah’s name but slaughtering it on the station of an idol, they are associated with Shirk. second is, when someone an animal is slaughtered but on it Allah’s name is not taken deliberately (as some Arabs made some bidah that in such specific animal, no one’s name will be taken while slaughtering) so even those animals are Haram to consume. Both types are fisq and animal is associated with fisq and it becomes Haram to consume.
My question is that will this phenomenon that involves shirk or bidah make the outcome Haram in every case as a result?
For example a man who had done some bidah in past.
– he stole or bought a stolen printer and knew it was Haram to use but through some Heela he tried to make it halal and use that printer. the document paper and ink was his own halal earned. so will all the previously printed document be Haram to read?
– second example a person downloads a pirated book and he knew it is Haram to use but he just got involved in Heela and bidah and tried to justify it to himself dishonestly that it’s halal and then uses it to gain knowledge of making software. will this knowledge be specifically Haram to use because he performed bidah and the knowledge he gained was as an outcome of implementing on his Heela/Bidah?
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