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Marriage With A Polytheist Is A Sin, But Still Valid?
Assallam u alaikum,hello there,
Discussion 40395 • Reply 40397
my question is that here ghamidi Sahab told that when someone is about to marry a another faith person then it’s not appropriate, and it would be violation but it seems like he said it would be still valid because he only referred it as “one violation will happen” .
so my question is that as Quran prohibits us from marrying a polytheist. then if a Muslim knowingly commits violates this due to his strong affection with the partner and marries them, then why should the marriage be considered valid? Quran commands us about a limit of marriage and if we cross it, then shouldn’t it make the marriage null from the start?
just as we are told to do tazkiya and tasmiya of an animal before eating. if we violate any of these condition, the meat is Haram and not permissible. but here in a same fashion a violation of command occurs, then logically shouldn’t marriage bee considered invalid?
ask.ghamidi.org
Marriage With Polytheists - Ask Ghamidi
Respected SirAs it is my understanding (via your Lecturers) that When Quran Addresses the Mushkrekeen / and Non Believers, the respondents as such are the
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Marriage With A Polytheist Is A Sin, But Still Valid?
updated 3 weeks, 2 days ago
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Please see Dr. Irfan Shahzad’s response:
Discussion 103091 • Reply 103239
ask.ghamidi.org
Marriage With Polytheists And With People Of The Book (Ahl-e-Kitab) - Ask Ghamidi
Is marriage of a Muslim woman to a polytheistic or Ahl e Kitab man, fasid or batil?
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@UmerQureshi brother, as far as I understood, he was referring it on the dimension of this world and state affair that any other human may not interfere with them etc.
but my question is about its validity in the eyes of Allah, that will the Muslim keep continous earning sin as long he stays in that marriage? will his relation be counted as Zina in the eyes of Allah? or in the eyes of Allah, the sin was the initial violation/deviation of marrying them. but once marriage has been done then it’s not necessary to divorce them, in the eyes of Allah?
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It was a single violation like other sins.
The person who committed this act didn’t care about ‘what Allah wants’, then who are we to say anthing? We can only tell about the social status of that marriage as an outsider. What Allah wants is from that person, not from you and me to impose on him.
If that person ever decides to make amends, then he will definitely seek forgiveness from Allah. However, cutting ties of marriage after realization is not obligatory on him, it is for the individual to decide; because such social decisons have a long lasting impact, that is why no such obligation was made by religion.
In order for you to prove that it is a continuous sin, you need to bring an explicit verse of Quran and not the other way round.
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@UmerQureshi okay brother so if we say that even after his deliberate violation, he will not be obliged to leave marriage. it logically means that Islamically if he stays in marriage further, it won’t be Haram and will be halal.
but we see that when it comes to Zabiha, a willful omission of tasmiya while slaughtering renders the meat Haram. here if we see that during slaughtering, an intentional violation of Allah’s command regarding slaughter made the meat Haram. so if anyone were to say that in marriage, an intentional violation of Allah’s command regarding marriage establishment, should make relation Haram too, then how would we differentiate and explain then that where does the difference lies?
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Zabeeha relates to dietary matters. Haram Zabiha, unless its eaten, will stay Haram, but a sin is not committed as long as a Muslim refrains from eating that meat (slaughtered by some other person). As soon as the person eats it, a sin has been committed. It is also not a continued sin, and I hope no one would dare present the argument that since that meat becomes part of the body ultimately and will stay with him till that person dies, so that person is in a continued state of sin. You are using somewhat similar analogy about marriage.
Eating non-Zabeeha meat and marrying a polytheist were both Haram for a Muslim. But once this violation is done, then it is of the same category i.e. a single violation of God’s directive.
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@UmerQureshi no no sir, you misunderstood me.
the sin in the case of Zabiha I am referring is the violation of intentionally not taking Allah’s name while slaughtering. the slaughter without Allah’s name, is a violation here that I am referring.
and how this commands violation, renders meat haram as a result
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Intentionally not taking Allah’s name is a separate violation and eating that Haram meat afterward is a separate violation.
Act of Marriage that was Haram is comparable to eating meat that was Haram, not with the prior violation of Tasmiya because that marriage was already Haram, no act like Tasmiya was required whose violation would render it haram.
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