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Why Doesn’t The Qur’an Mention Making Up Missed Salah In Menses?
As salam walaikum
We know from the Qur’an that if fasts are missed due to undue difficulty, they must be made up later (2:184-185). This extends to women during menstruation as well.
So my question is: Why doesn’t the Qur’an mention whether missed Salah during menstruation should be made up or not?
The common answer is that Allah does not burden a soul beyond its capacity (2:286), which sounds logical and reasonable.
But why is such an important matter not mentioned for Salah, when it could be deduced that since making up missed fasts is mentioned, the same would apply to Salah?Or is the conclusion in this regard is entirely based on hadiths?
But this raises another question: Why is such an important matter left entirely to hadiths?
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10 Replies
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Why Doesn’t The Qur’an Mention Making Up Missed Salah In Menses?
updated 1 week, 3 days ago
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10
Replies
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It is for the ease that Salah which occured five times a day, if missed, is not required to be made up, later. Fast on the other hand, come once a year only.
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I guess I didn’t frame my question well. Let me frame it again.
I already acknowledged that this ruling is for ease. But my question is: what is the source of this ruling?
Why is this not mentioned in the Qur’an, if women on their menses were not required to perform it later?Why was such an important matter like Salah left to inferences and Hadith instead of being directly stated in the Qur’an?
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It is not left to inference, but determined by Sunnah as a well established practice, that they won’t make up the missed prayers but they would make missed fasts. Its rationale, however, has to be understood with logic and reasoning within that frame of Deen.
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The mutawatar Sunnah like prayer fast hajj zakat, they are the not initiated by Qur’an. They are the subjects of Sunnah. Qur’an mentions them for one reason or another.
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Oh, thank you!
So, women were exempt from Salah and from making up missed Salah even before Prophet Muhammad (SWS). I would guess since Prophet Adam (AS)?
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Yes of course.
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If the exemption of menstruating women from worship is part of the prophetic Sunnah passed down from earlier prophets, why is there no trace of this ruling in mainstream Christian practice today?
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Christianity what is known today is the doctrine of St. Paul. He declared that the Shariah was only for Israelites, therefore non Israelites needed not to adopt shariah. The Bible has recorded his dispute on this issue with other companions of the prophet Isa.
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So if I’m not wrong, before Paul’s influence took over, the early Christians followed the Shariah — or in other words, the Mosaic Law.
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Yes, of course. They were the Jews who were already following Mosaic law. The problem occurred when Paul started preaching non-Jewish peoples
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