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Why The Command In Surah Al-Ahzab If Veiling Already Existed?
It’s known that face covering or the use of the veil (niqab/jilbab) existed in pre-Islamic Arabian culture. Although not universally practiced, it was present and culturally relevant among certain tribes.
Given that, why did Surah al-Ahzab (33:59) issue a command for believing women and the Prophet’s family to cover themselves with the jilbab? If the practice was already in place, what was the need for this command seperately? -
5 Replies
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Why The Command In Surah Al-Ahzab If Veiling Already Existed?
updated 1 day, 16 hours ago
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That usual practice of the women was declared an official mark to identify the lady from the slave girl, before the culprits, who used to tease the ladies, were brought to book.
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So, it was in this way—Jilbabs were commonly worn by women, but it varied—not all of them did.And if I’m not wrong, the wives of the Prophet also didn’t wear jilbabs before the ruling.
With the revelation of the ruling, the practice was made obligatory for all of them for a certain period of time.
Have I understood it correctly?
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No. The wives of the prophet and other ladies put on jalbab because it was common attire of ladies. It was then made an official mark of their identity.
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O Prophet! Tell your wives and your daughters and the women of the believers to draw over themselves their jilbāb(outer garments). That is more suitable that they will be known and not be abused. And ever is Allah Forgiving and Merciful. [33:59]
If the women of that time already wore the jilbāb, why does the verse come in the form of a command? Why not simply say, “Continue wearing your jilbābs”?
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The verse seems to align only if the context was such that the jilbāb was a common dress but not routinely followed by everyone, nor universally practiced by Arab women. Then, through this verse, it was made universal and mandated to be followed consistently without fail.
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