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Enslavement Of Persians Vs. Quranic Abolition: History Or Religion?
Assalam-o-Alaikum,I am struggling to reconcile the Quranic command (47:4) to release war captives with the historical fact that early Arab conquests involved the mass enslavement of thousands of Persian men and women.My questions are:Ghamidi Sahab teaches that the Quran abolished new slavery. Why, then, did the companions apparently ignore this directive during the conquest of a civilized society like Persia?Can we categorize these actions as “human/cultural errors” or Arab imperial baggage rather than part of the Religion (Deen)?Does my faith in the Quran require me to defend these historical actions, or am I free to criticize them based on my moral conscience (Fitrah)?If I find the “pure” ethical heritage of Ancient Persia (e.g., Cyrus the Great/Zulqarnain) more aligned with justice than these historical practices, does this critique affect my standing as a believer?I seek a response that distinguishes between the divine message and fallible human history.JazakAllah.
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