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Marital Status In The Context Of Three Divorces
Approximately one year ago, my husband pronounced a verbal talaq to me during a moment of extreme anger. Within a few hours, he stated that he did not intend divorce and that the words were spoken in anger. Later, he consulted a local Mufti (in my country), who advised him not to repeat such words and to continue the marriage. I was not present during that consultation, nor was I shown the written fatwa.
Following this incident, we continued to live together as husband and wife, and I conceived and gave birth to our child.
When our child was around six months old, marital conflicts arose again. During one disagreement, I told my husband that I needed some time and space and did not wish to live together temporarily. Shortly after this, instead of reconciliation, he sent me a legal divorce notice dated 8 August 2025, which I received.
One month later, on 8 September 2025, he sent another legal divorce notice, which I refused to receive. I do not know the contents or exact wording of that second notice.
Subsequently, on 25 September 2025, my husband sent me a written message stating clearly:
“I am taking you back. I want to reconcile. Whatever happened, it happened because of our ego.”
He also sent a mediator to our home to attempt reconciliation. My family proposed certain conditions for reconciliation, which he declined.
After this, my husband wrote to our local mosque Imam claiming that he had divorced me three times: one verbal talaq and two written notices. Based on this claim, he was later informed that the marriage had ended permanently.
I humbly request your guidance on the following matters:
1. Does a verbal talaq pronounced in anger, later claimed to be unintended, count as a valid talaq—especially when marital life continued afterward and a child was born?
2. Do written legal divorce notices automatically constitute talaq under Shariah, particularly when one notice was refused and the wording and intention are unclear to the wife?
3. Does the written message stating, “I am taking you back. I want to reconcile,” have Shariah significance in terms of الرجوع (rujū‘)?
4. Based on the above facts, has an irrevocable (final) divorce truly occurred according to Islamic law, or does the possibility of reconciliation still remain?
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3 Replies
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Marital Status In The Context Of Three Divorces
updated 4 weeks, 1 day ago
2 Members
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3
Replies
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The first divorce did not occur.
Two written divorces, in August and September, can be counted as one, because divorce is not a verbal count, but rather it is documented on different occasions, each following reconciliation.
He has already reconciled. Now, he should not claim that he has given three divorces. If he wants to divorce, he should follow the due course of divorce enunciated in the Quran. If he wants to reconcile, he still can do it.
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A husband sent his divorced wife a text saying “I am taking you back,” during iddah but there was no meeting, no cohabitation, and the wife did not respond for months. Does this count as rujūʿ? Is a new nikāh required?
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It is ruju, regardless of whether she responded or not, and the nikah remains intact.
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