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Should We Boycott The French On The Issue Of Cartoons?
Regarding the recent issue of France. What should be our attitude? Is it right to boycott french products and curse France president?
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15 Replies
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Should We Boycott The French On The Issue Of Cartoons?
updated 2 years, 6 months ago
5 Members
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15
Replies
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Please stay tuned for Ghamidi sahab’s opinion on this issue that we’ll share shortly.
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For answer, please refer to the video below from 1:05:42 to 1:13:05
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My personal opinion is we condemn showing of the cartoons but we must also condemn killing of the French teacher. Has Allah given this right to any one to kill another person for any reason. ? Our Prophet saw never uttered a harsh word, even when he was being humiliated, refused when he was delivering Allah’s message. So who are we imitating?
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“Zulm” in what sense?. Can we take Blasphemy as Zulm?. But there is no punishment for Blasphemy, right?. I am little bit confused on this matter.
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There’s no punisment for Blasphemy in Sharia, but when that blasphemy takes form of oppression (zulm) or results in Anarchy in a society (fasad-fil-arz), then prescribed actions in Sharia can be taken against the perpetrator.
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How can we understand weather the blasphemy is taking the form of opression or not?..cause every form of blasphemy can be taken as oppression.
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Defamation laws are very common in today’s world. If a state can decide status of defamation of its individual citizens then why cannot it decide it in case of blasphemy; it can also decide whether any such blasphemy has taken a form of oppression requiring any action at a state level or not.
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Thank you sir.🙏🏻
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One thing , there’s no punishment for blasphemy in Sharia. So, is there anything in the Sharia that when blasphemy takes the form of oppresion then actions can be taken? or it is the left to the State to decide to make punishment for blasphemy but on the grounds of Injustice not by claimining it that there is punishment for blasphemy. And it is left to the state to decide weather to make law for such things or not and is not compulsory.
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This is the domain of state to decide whether a blasphemy is committed at a state level by another country or not, whether that blasphemy has been taken to a point where it can be categorized as oppression soliciting a response by the state, what kind of response is appropriate in the circumstances, does state meet the conditions required for Jihad becoming obligatory etc. State has not been bound by Sharia to take any one particular measure in this regard.
As for the individual, please refer to the video below from 22:33 to 25:40
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From what I have understood by going through all the discussion on this matter, I am summarizing all the points , please let me know wheather my understanding is correct or not because I don’t want to be in a Confusion.
1) There is no punishment for blasphemy in Shariat.
2) There is no punishment in Sharia that doesn’t mean that a Muslim state can’t do anything against blasphemy.
There are two ways a state can make law against blasphemy :-
A) A Muslim state can make laws against blasphemy, but not by claiming that there is punishment for blasphemy specifically, but on the basis of Injustice.
B) A Muslim state can take verses of Surah Maidah (33-34) as a basis.
There are certain conditions while taking this verses as a basis for making the law.
i) If the accused persists in blasphemy despite several warnings, inshort is in no mood to repent or surrender and takes the stand of retialation, then only he can be termed as muharabah or Fasad fi al-ard.
If the accused is a muslim he should be warned that, he should not destroy his hereafter. If the accused is a non-muslim he should be warned that, he should show concern for the sentiments of Muslims and should abstrain from such things.
ii) The accused case should be filed only if he persists in blasphemy even after several warnings , but if the accused show remorse or repent then case should not be filed against him and he should be released.
iii)Capital punishment is not mandatory and room for lighter sentences should be there by considering the nature of offence and the state of the offender.
3) If blasphemy is committed by a country:- 👇🏻
This is the domain of state to decide whether a blasphemy is committed at a state level by another country or not, whether that blasphemy has been taken to a point where it can be categorized as oppression soliciting a response by the state, what kind of response is appropriate in the circumstances, does state meet the conditions required for Jihad becoming obligatory etc. State has not been bound by Sharia to take any one particular measure in this regard.
4) If blasphemy is committed by an individual in a non muslim state, then ulemas or muslims of that country should give them dawat by awaring them of the truth, by reminding them their mistakes and give them reasoning. Reasoning is the only way in this situation and even if they persists then the only way is to “Ignore the Ignorant”.
Protesting against those people, political members, leaders is not the right way.
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Correct.
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Thank youu sir🙏🏻
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