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  • Javed Ahmed Ghamidi's Article On Masturbation

    Posted by Haseeb Faisal on November 8, 2020 at 7:00 pm

    I read Javed Ghamidi’s article on Hifz-al-Furuj. He argues that in Sūrah Mu’minūn verses 23 to 25, the allowable scope of sexual acts are not being discussed. Rather, the people with whom sexual acts are permitted are being discussed – these people being wives or slaves (in the past). Since we – ourselves – are not mentioned in this verse, does this not mean that we must guard our private parts from ourselves, therefore making masturbation/self-gratification not allowed?

    Haseeb Faisal replied 4 years ago 4 Members · 12 Replies
  • 12 Replies
  • Javed Ahmed Ghamidi's Article On Masturbation

    Haseeb Faisal updated 4 years ago 4 Members · 12 Replies
  • Faisal Haroon

    Moderator November 8, 2020 at 7:58 pm

    I think that the article tries to make the very point that linguistically there’s no room for such interpretation as you have stated above.

    • Haseeb Faisal

      Member November 8, 2020 at 8:09 pm

      Asalamoalaikum Sir,

      Thank you very much for your answer! Is it possible that you can share this image in English? I am unable to read in Urdu. Another thing is, the article discusses that the verse in question specifies with whom a man can engage in sexual relations. But wouldn’t masturbating be a form of indulging in a sexual relationship with himself, in which case the verse prohibits masturbation, even as per Javed Ghamidi’s explanation? This is because the verse allows these relationships with a wife, slave (in the past), but does not mention “with oneself”. Apologies if my question does not make sense.

      JazakAllah

  • Faisal Haroon

    Moderator November 8, 2020 at 8:27 pm

    Here’s the entire article for you in English:

    Hifz al-Furuj

    (Guarding the Private Parts)

    The shari‘ah does not allow Muslims to sexually gratify themselves from any other individual but their wives. The Almighty has forbidden it, and categorically stated in Surah Mu’minun that people who sexually gratify themselves from anyone other than their wives will be guilty of exceeding the limits set by God. The slave-women of the times of the Prophet (sws) who were yet to be liberated from their masters were, however, exempted from this directive: if people wanted, they could also satisfy their sexual urge through them. The Qur’an says:

    وَالَّذِیۡنَ ہُمۡ لِفُرُوۡجِہِمۡ حٰفِظُوۡنَ.اِلَّا عَلٰۤی اَزۡوَاجِہِمۡ اَوۡ مَا مَلَکَتۡ اَیۡمَانُہُمۡ فَاِنَّہُمۡ غَیۡرُ مَلُوۡمِیۡنَ.فَمَنِ ابۡتَغٰی وَرَآءَ ذٰلِکَ فَاُولٰٓئِکَ ہُمُ الۡعٰدُوۡنَ.(23: 5-7)

    And who guard their private parts except from their wives and slave-women because for these they have no blame on them. But, those who want something beyond this are indeed transgressors. (23:5-7)

    Presented above is the correct interpretation of the verse. However, some of our jurists have also argued on the basis of this verse that except for wives and slave-women other means of sexual-gratification are forbidden. Thus like adultery, homosexuality and bestiality, various forms of masturbation are also forbidden in their opinion. The only lenience that can be given in this regard is that the extent of this prohibition of masturbation is less than that of adultery, homosexuality and bestiality, and if people in order to protect themselves from these sins indulge in such sexual self-gratification to vent their emotions, then it can be expected that perhaps the Almighty would not punish them.

    In my opinion, this argument is very weak, and in fact incorrect as per the linguistic principles of Arabic. The reason for this is that the preposition عَلٰۤی (on/upon) does not collocate with حٰفِظُوۡنَ (those who guard) and thus there necessarily exists a tadmin in this expression, and words such as عَنْ الوُقُوعِ عَلٰی اَحَدٍ (from indulging with anyone) are suppressed after حٰفِظُوۡنَ. Thus, the object from which the exception is sought in this expression is not the ways of sexual-gratification: it is the individuals with whom a person can establish sexual relations. It is evident from this discussion that this verse does not mean that no way of sexual-gratification is allowed except through wives and slave-women; the correct meaning is that except for wives and slave-women, one cannot appease one’s sexual urge with any other individual. This is the correct meaning of the verse. Thus, it can be said with full certainty that there is no injunction or general principle in the Qur’an on the basis of which masturbation can be regarded as prohibited or undesirable. No different is the case of the Hadith. Its whole corpus is devoid of any narrative on this subject which is acceptable to the scholars of Hadith.

    Thus, in this regard, the correct opinion is the one which is presented by Imam Ibn Hazm in his al-Muhalla[1] with all the requisite arguments. He has mentioned through a chain of narration that authorities like Hasan al-Basri, ‘Amr ibn Dinar, Ziyad Abu al-A‘la and Mujahid regard masturbation as allowed. These authorities mostly narrate such things from the Companions of the Prophet (sws).

    (Translated by Dr Shehzad Saleem)

    ______________

    [1]. Abu Muhammad ‘Ali ibn Ahmad ibn Sa‘idibn Hazm, Al-Muhalla bi al-athar, 1st ed., vol. 11 (Beirut: Dar al-afaq al-jadidah, n.d.), 393.

  • Haseeb Faisal

    Member November 8, 2020 at 8:44 pm

    Thank you, I see. My question is regarding this statement in the article:

    “Thus, the object from which the exception is sought in this expression is not the ways of sexual-gratification: it is the individuals with whom a person can establish sexual relations.

    The mentioned individuals with whom we can establish sexual relations are wives and slave-women. There is no mention of ourselves, but isn’t masturbation a form of establishing sexual relations with ourselves?

  • Faisal Haroon

    Moderator November 8, 2020 at 8:52 pm

    My friend, that’s the point that he is trying to make. Linguistically, such an interpretation is not possible.

  • Zeeshan

    Member December 7, 2020 at 4:55 pm
  • Umer

    Moderator December 7, 2020 at 5:47 pm

    Please see if this helps:

    Discussion 7141 • Reply 7283

    • Haseeb Faisal

      Member December 7, 2020 at 9:02 pm

      Your answers are definitely very clear and thorough. I don’t believe I was able to convey the point properly in the question that I posed. In fact, the question I am asking might even be a bit silly. But regarding your point:

      “However, the presence of عَلَى is emphasizing on individuals with whom sexual-gratification is allowed therefore giving an obvious hint that previously mentioned حَافِظُوْنَ was limiting it to people only with whom sexual-gratification is allowed; which was later further qualified to wives and slave-maidens only.”

      I understand that the usage of Arabic means that what is being discussed here is only the people with whom sexual-gratification is allowed. But, what if someone were to say that this verse would have been qualified to wives, slave-maidens and *yourselves* if self-gratification were allowed. Because self-gratification is a way of having a sexual relationship with oneself? In other words, an individual can have sexual relations with oneself through self-gratification, so this clarification should have been made along with wives and slave-maidens. I might be overthinking here.

    • Umer

      Moderator December 18, 2020 at 5:32 pm

      The actual prohibition in Islam is that of Zina and Quran makes it very clear, which involves an act of copulation between a male and a female out of a wedlock. This definition of Zina is universal. Therefore, when Quran is asking for protection of one’s private parts, it is talking about protecting them from Zina (which Quran has emphasized on so many other places), and this view gets further solidified that later exceptions mentioned by Quran are with other individuals which, points to the fact that previous protection was also with individuals (of whose linguistics we already discussed above). Hence, it is linguistically flawed to assume that out of no where in the context of Zina, Quran should mention masturbation unnecessarily. The relevant exceptions should be with people with whom it is allowed.

      Also, we never use the term sexual relationship with oneself in any language, it is again a linguistic fallacy. Therefore, we should not add a meaning just because our pre-conceived notions were of actual ‘Hurmat’ of Masturbation.

    • Haseeb Faisal

      Member December 18, 2020 at 6:31 pm

      Okay, that makes a lot of sense! I understand now that since zina is a theme of the Quran, it would not make sense that masturbation would be mentioned all of a sudden. So regarding your second point, the people that say masturbation is the zina of the hands are committing a linguistic fallacy. Correct? Because that is not zina?

    • Umer

      Moderator December 18, 2020 at 6:38 pm

      Zina / Adultery has a very specific universal definition and its application is also very well known. Applying it in absolute sense to masturbation is a linguistic fallacy nevertheless.

    • Haseeb Faisal

      Member December 18, 2020 at 9:03 pm

      JazakAllah. Makes sense!

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