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Al-ithm Meaning – “Gunnah” Or “Haq Talfi”
If anyone could please elaborate why the arabic word “al-ithm” (الاثم) is translated as “haq talfi” in surah a’araf aayah in which only 5 categories are termed as Haraam and not translated as “gunnah”.
1: in other places the very same word is translated as “gunnah” unlike in this aayah. What is the reason for that? Is gunnah only “haq-talfi”?
2: right after the “al-ithm” the category is of “na-haq ziadti” which is exactly the same as “haq-talfi” hence, why it’s then a repetition over here?
Jzk!
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18 Replies
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Al-ithm Meaning – “Gunnah” Or “Haq Talfi”
updated 1 year, 2 months ago
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18
Replies
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Thank you for that but my question was more towards the reasoning of the different translation of “al-ithm”; translating it as “haq-talafi” and not as sin/“gunah” as in all other places. This is my first question!
and following question is, transgression is actually a “haq-talafi” hence, it does not seem appropriate that two different words be used for the same thing and then considered as 2 different categories.
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Hmm. I see what you mean. According to lane’s lexicon baghy means being tyrannical or doing oppression- and ithm just means sin
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Hence, the 2 questions!
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http://lexicon.quranic-research.net/data/02_b/153_bge.html
http://lexicon.quranic-research.net/data/01_A/023_Avm.html
Here is lanes lexicon to show that ithm seems to just mean sin whereas baghy means oppressions/tyranny
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Thanks for sharing this. It’s quite a strange Arabic dictionary tho. However, the confusion remains intact as what a sin is and why it is not sin over here but termed as “haq-talafi”. I saw another discussion which tries to answer this that, when al-ithm is used alone it means sin however, when it is used with other kinds of sins (such as fawahish, bagheee, shirk) it takes the meanings of “haq-talafi”. I am unable to comprehend this as I could not relate this with any example in Urdu or English word in which a word takes a different meaning when used with some other words. It is not the case where a word is used as a metaphor rather a whole different meaning is being implied.
@UmerQureshi would you be able to help with this, maybe a similar example from Urdu/English? I saw you recommending the video of Ghamidi shb and other resources in a similar discussion however, there is still confusion in understanding it without the specific example.
Thank you!
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Maybe @Irfan76 sahab can help.
What I sent was lanes lexicon- it’s quite a respected and well known dictionary for lughatul Arab
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No two words are ever similar or synonyms in all aspects. For example Love and Affection. We can use love for affection and affection for love but when we need to be specified we use affection.
Ithm means sin when used in general, but when used with other words of sins, it turns to show its specifics aspect of sin, that is Haq talfi, and it is different from Ziatdati. In Haq talfi you refused to give away something to someone which is rightfully his and you possess it. but in baghee or Ziatdati you transgress and encroach upon someone’s right which was not in your possession before and you deprive him of his right.
The First is somewhat a passive act, the second is somewhat an active act.
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Thank you so much for that. I do get the difference between Haq-talafi and baghee however, the initial example that you gave is of TWO different words with somewhat similar meanings whereas, my confusion lies with ONE word having 2 different (non-metaphorical) meanings. What, if any, example do we have in our daily life in which the word can get a specific meaning if being used with other words but will give a general meaning if used alone? That is the case with the word “ithm” here.
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We can find it in other languages too. For example In urdu we use the word ڈر to show respect.
میں اپنے والد یا والدہ یا بیوی سے ڈرتا ہوں۔
But when I need to clarify I would say
میں شیر سے ڈرتا ہوں اور والدین کا احترام کرتا ہون۔
When there was no comparison I used the word Darr for respect but when there is a comparison I need to be more specific.
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What is the evidence from a lexicon that says ithm means haq talfi? Which lexicon did ghamidi sahab get this from?
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From what I know of these videos a specific reference is not provided to mu’jams. Do you have a reference for that?
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Irfan Sahab can better guide you in this regard.
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to me, It is extracted from its use in the context. The verse 7: 33 counts all categories of sins, and only category left is usurpation (Haq talfi). anotehr indicator is its use with Transgression in multiple verses and the only sin in the comparison of transgression is usurpation.
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When a person is doing “Haq Talfi” he at the same time commits “Baghi” or wrongful oppression. Baghi also encompasses Haq Talfi then why “Ithma” is translated for the same?
The only category left is “Haq Talfi” are you pretty sure about this?
Killing an innocent falls under the domain of Haq Talfi or Baghi or it can be a translation of “Ithma”?
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There are different words with different meanings. Since the difference is there, we need different words to tell the difference. When two words having close meanings are used together, we need to differentiate between their meanings. This is what every language does. This is linguistic. However, philosophically we can trace the element of transgression in usurpation and vice versa.
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