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Husband Getting Intimate After Wife Has Clearly Expressed Intentions For Divorce
Will it be considered Haraam if the wife categorically expresses her wish for divorce but has to stay with the husband for few days due to unavoidable reasons. If the man forces himself on her then, will it be considered haram?
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8 Replies
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Husband Getting Intimate After Wife Has Clearly Expressed Intentions For Divorce
updated 2 years, 5 months ago
2 Members
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8
Replies
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If a husband uses his physical power inappropriately in the form of any aggression (physical or sexual in this case ) against his wife (against her will) then ofcourse its a sin and he will be held accoubtable his actions.
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How to know which carries more condemnation, Haraam or just a sin?
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Every Haram act results in a sin and every sin is a Haram act; the only question that remains is whether committing of a particular act results in a major sin or a minor sin. In this specific situation, I believe such an act will result in a major sin since it is evidently an extrmeem form of oppression against another person’s honour which has utmost sanctity in Islam, and also it belongs to violation of haqooq-ul-ibad.
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So why do we shy away from calling it Haraam then?
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Because technically they are married, that’s why?
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It is Haram ofcourse.
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But will it still be haraam if the wife hasn’t explicitly desired for divorce? But she hasn’t given consent for being intimate and the husband does it against her will?
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This becomes grey area because Nikah itself was an explicit consent from both parties. The merits of the situation here depend on husband’s actual intent and circumstances of the situation and actual intent of wife as well. It can result in a sin in some circumstances, but such a situation is not easy at a human level to breakdown intent-wise, but there will be justice even for this situation in the court of God.
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