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  • If Every Messenger Marry And Had Children, Then What About Jesus?

    Posted by Chowdhury Naqib on April 14, 2024 at 8:58 am

    In surah Ar-Ra’d [13:38]: [Their objection is that why do you not show them a sign and why do you have worldly needs?] We have sent messengers before you also [O Prophet!] and [since they were human beings,] We gave them wives and children. And no messenger had the authority to show a sign without God’s permission.

    It is mentioned that every rasool sent before Muhammad (pbuh) was married and had children. Then my question is what about Jesus (pbuh). As far as my historic knowledge goes neither he married nor he had any children. Does that prove there will be second coming? I am quiet confused about this

    Detailed answer or at least sources for answer will be helpful.

    Saad replied 7 months, 2 weeks ago 3 Members · 4 Replies
  • 4 Replies
  • If Every Messenger Marry And Had Children, Then What About Jesus?

    Saad updated 7 months, 2 weeks ago 3 Members · 4 Replies
  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar April 15, 2024 at 12:13 am

    This is a general statement. Exceptions in every general statement are always there. it was not a law or rule for the prophets to marry Ans have children. However they generally follow the normal ways of life. This is what the verse means.

  • Chowdhury Naqib

    Member April 15, 2024 at 4:03 am

    How do we determine whether something is general statement or it is a law. And some examples from the Quran will be helpful. Thanks in advance.

    • Saad

      Contributor April 15, 2024 at 4:27 am

      You need to read the whole Qur’an to determine it. Here is an example:

      They say: “What kind of a messenger is he? He eats food [like us] and roams around in markets [to fulfil his needs]! Why was not an angel sent to him that he may have accompanied him to warn [those who do not believe?] (Qur’an 25:7)

      Whichever messengers We sent before you also, all ate food and roamed about in markets…… (Qur’an 25:20)

      Now you can’t say that “All messengers must go to markets place” is a law. The way this statement is used, you can understand that it is a response to the rejectors in verse 25:7 above that why a messenger is a human and Allah response in same words as there that all messengers before are like that, i.e human in verse 25:20 above that had wives, had children, ate food, went to market place. Therefore it’s general, not a law, by understanding the context in the entire Qur’an. And you can’t argue with this verse (25:20 above) that a certain messenger didn’t go to the market place so there must a second coming where he must come back and go to the market place otherwise he’s not a messenger. Common sense doesn’t accept that as a solid argument.

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar April 15, 2024 at 4:21 am

    This is a common understanding of language. we use the same in our statements. The government says it will fine a person who violates a traffic rule. But a magistrate can excuse a person if he finds that he violated under some pressing circumstances.

    There are many examples in the Quran too. God says: 4: 130

    وَإِن يَتَفَرَّقَا يُغْنِ اللَّهُ كُلًّا مِّن سَعَتِهِ ۚ وَكَانَ اللَّهُ وَاسِعًا حَكِيمًا

    And if the husband and wife part, God shall provide abundance for each from His bounty. God is extremely Bountiful and very Wise.

    It does not mean that every divorced will receive abundance but he or she can receive abundance if they trust in God and follow the right way.

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