Ask Ghamidi

A Community Driven Discussion Portal
To Ask, Answer, Share And Learn

Forums Forums Epistemology And Philosophy Itmam-e-Hujjah Of Prophet Muhammad (sws)

  • Itmam-e-Hujjah Of Prophet Muhammad (sws)

  • Umer

    Moderator July 4, 2024 at 7:45 am

    Because it happened in the light of known history (i.e. histroic era as compared to prehistoric era). There is no real academic debate on the historical authenticity of these events. The institution of prophethood came to an end because of two factors:

    1) Conditions conducive to Quran’s permanent preservation happened due to which Hidayah is available to everyone.

    2) The incident of Shahdah (itmam-e-hujjat/completion of proof) happened in the light of known history.

    Torah does’t contain inzar and basharat because prophets were there to perform this function and in turn, Bani-Israel was to perform it on the rest of the nations.

    • Shayiq Shah

      Member July 4, 2024 at 10:25 am

      You have to answer actually where lies that vast difference in record of previos history of inzar of other prophets and in case of prophet saw…

      Mecahism of history is same…where lies the gap…

      You will repeat that it happened in historic period…but again why previos history is not of that level as of prophet saw…

      Maybe you will say that Quran was transmitted by quali and tahreeri tawatur this is how…..

      Yes this is pt..

      But again that was also case after moses…then prophets like yusha ibn noon came….

      That time then why were they send….u will say to inzar bani israel…but that is already available immediately after moses…by ijma and tawatur…and they can transmit this to other nations…..

      Also itmam hujjah is known mainly to muslim history…which was as well case before …that in case of other prophets….

      You will say that it was known even to emperors like of Rome etc…

      But that was even case at time of prophet joseph….and was then run into history…

      So where loes that vast gap…..

      But for me these weigh not that much:because we see same case….

      My understanding is that:

      1)language of Quran that arabic was preserved because of vast writing and documentation in the history of arabic language…..which made it possible even today to access single interpretation of Quranic statement…which was not in case of prophets before even pure recitation of torah was lost…so it was must in that situation to send prophets….

      Yes law was included in torah because it was sunnah of inzar already in children of israel and prophets were send to guide them according to torah which is also mentioned in Quran…..and this was because recitation lost and people began to make their own made interpretations….and within that inzar and basharat of those prophets was included as more good thing .

      2)100% preservation of Quran by Quali and tahreeri tawatur….which is never indicated in history to be happened any time…

      So if these two things have happened…then for me i grab no reason to have the door open…..

      3) pt. Why immediately after moses prophets were send….i guess there would have neen something with torah….after i will r esearch on this portion….i will myself answer it….but if you know write here then….

  • Shayiq Shah

    Member July 4, 2024 at 10:03 am

    So can i say that the existence if prophet saw is part of established history…while as of other prophets it is not….

    But itmam e hujjah record is of same level as of ither prophets….because there also written and tawatur history tells us…here is same case as well….

    So hiw it has became that important

  • Shayiq Shah

    Member July 4, 2024 at 10:52 am

    For pt. 3 yes obviosly because language documentation was not upto that level…so was necessary to establish hidayah……by prophets themselves…its importance could have been more because of variations in language of bani israel as well……

  • Shayiq Shah

    Member July 4, 2024 at 11:02 am

    Maybe after moses lawngiven to children of israel had to be established at higher level….which could have been possible without prophet yushua if the conditions at time of proohet saw were made….

  • Shayiq Shah

    Member July 4, 2024 at 11:42 am

    I mean as bani israel had to do inzar other nations as well as a ummah….so as other nations were not awared of there language and themselves there would have been not puristined possiblity if having complete right interpretations of things because if pt. I mentioned abive….so there wouod have been inly 1 way to solve it that to continously send prophets in bani israel so that itmam hujjat would be preserved by process of continuation….due to which interpretations were preserved…which made bani israel then able to do inzar process on other nations as well….as a ummah…

  • Shayiq Shah

    Member July 4, 2024 at 11:48 am

    But in case of prophet sws….abive cases happened….which collectively made it possible for bani ishmael or latest bearers of deen of abraham as to do it as ummah on other people….

    Lets reverse if that would not have happened…

    1)no tawatur(quli and tahreeri)

    2)no preservation of language.

    Recitation would have lost…so higher possiblities of misinterpretations….

    And also if it had been preserved but not language lets say… then as well it would not have been in position to have pure understanding of the Quranic ayahs….

    So need if prophet would have been….

You must be logged in to reply.
Login | Register