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Legality And Validity Of Marriage Between Muslims And Non-Muslims
As-Salamu Alaikum,
This question has been asked and discussed many times by Javed Ahmad Ghamidi, as well as scholars and moderators here, but one thing remains unclear to me.
The topic is marriage with non-Muslims (Christians, Jews, atheists, Hindus, etc.).
My question is not about whether one should marry them — in this regard, I am clear.Rather, the question is strictly about whether such marriages can be considered legally and Islamically valid.Is the marriage between them regarded as:
–Valid,
-Invalid,
-Adultery, or
–A one-time sin committed by the person, but the marriage remains valid? Here by one time I meant some say the sin is ongoing.
On a fundamental level, we do not and cannot label Hindus or Christians as mushriks or kafirs — that judgment is with God alone.
So, based on this principle, does marriage between a Muslim and such non-Muslims become technically, logically, and legally allowed?
Again, my question is not about whether one should marry them — I agree Muslims should be cautious and sensitive even about marrying even a Muslim from a different section .(Example sunni should cautious before marrying a shia and vice versa)
Anyway this is about the legality and validity of such marriages.
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9 Replies
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Legality And Validity Of Marriage Between Muslims And Non-Muslims
updated 1 month, 1 week ago
3 Members
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9
Replies
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They are valid because marriage is social contract as per Ghamidi sb understanding
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So, it’s not also a one-time sin committed by the person, but the marriage is still valid, right?
If someone marries, we can’t say that he or she committed a haram act or sin. We can discourage the act, but that’s all.
Have I understood it correctly?
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I am not sure it is a sin or not, but rest i think is correct.
I will request @Irfan76 sb to give his scholarly opinion on that.
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Such a marriage is valid, but the act is disapproved ( if Muslim man marries an atheist or a Muslim woman marries a non Muslim)
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Yes, but if someone wants to label the act, it can only fall under the category of ‘highly discouraged’ and not ‘haram,’ which would imply that committing it is a sin, right ? Ultimately and specifically, it would not be considered a sin for the person committing it?
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It is a sin because the man disobeyed God. But marriage is valid, it is not zina.
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Alright, but as we can’t label someone as kuffar or mushrik, then how is it a sin?
–The principle is that marriage should be done with those who uphold the principle of Tawheed (and in our eyes, it’s only the Muslims).
But Christians and Jews also claim that they follow monotheism — so how do we view this?
–If the rule is specific to Muslims only, then what about the many sects in Islam who unknowingly commit shirk?
They also don’t claim it as shirk, just like Christians, Jews, and even Hindus don’t claim it.
So how are they different in this case?
–I agree the intensity of shirk may vary among them, but if the principle is that marriage should be only with Muslims, then shouldn’t marrying those Muslim sects who commit shirk also be a sin?
And if marrying them is not a sin, then why should marrying those who also claim to worship one God (Christians, Jews, Hindus), even if we don’t agree with their beliefs, be a sin?
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Marrying the women of the people of book is allowed for Muslim men. The principle that allows marrying the people of book is that they essentially believes in monotheism. The Christians have been given the margin of their interpretation of Trinity as Tawheed. Based on this cause a Muslim man can marry any non muslim woman who believes in one God. Their marriage is valid.
Marrying an atheist is not allowed.
However, Muslim woman is not allowed to marry a non Muslim. If a Muslims woman marries a non Muslim, this act is disproved but marriage is valid.
Read my above answer in the light of this latest answer. There is some ambiguity in the above answers.
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