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Time Bound Ruling In The Quran Or Not
Why cannot the verse on wife ‘beating’ be taken as time-bound, or a step towards stopping of beating of wives?
As the physical punishment has been deferred after the first step
Normally when the husband would be angry he would tend to lash out physically in those days
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7 Replies
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Time Bound Ruling In The Quran Or Not
updated 4 years, 1 month ago
4 Members
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7
Replies
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Please see if my latest reply here answers this to some extent or not:
In very simplistic terms, a verse cannot be considered time-bound when the conditions giving rise to that verse are somewhat permanent in nature.
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Can’t we just say that this was good advice for 7th century Arabia, and nowadays we wouldn’t usually use this method?
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That’s exactly what Umer sahab is providing an argument against.
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‘A question arises about this last option: with a change in society and civilization, if exercising the first two options does not bear results and a husband is left with no alternative but to adopt the third option, can a state bind him to not take this step himself and consign this matter to a court of law?
The opinion of this writer is in the affirmative. This is because this alternative is merely another way of following the directive of God and does not annul the directive. It does not make a difference if to reform the wife the punishment is meted out by the husband, the elders of the family or a court of law. It is the will of God that if to save a family, a wife needs to be punished, then she should be punished. It is only a reformatory measure and nothing more.’
Isn’t what I said just a paraphrasing of this?
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Please see:
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No- I mean in our society women won’t stop just because you discipline them. So this advice would’ve worked in Arabia where women were kept in a way that discipline would work because of the society. Nowadays it wouldn’t. So this advice was perfect for Arabs and if it works for a tribal society today fine. But for a city dwelling couple, the husband would probably take a different route which has been allowed since the permissibility to hit is not a directive
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There’s no evidence to that assumption, and I don’t think that there can ever be an objective way to gather any such evidence. Besides, things in the Quran that are specific only to the direct addressees of prophet SAW are clear from the context. We can’t pick and choose.
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