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Word Khatam Used In An Arabic Couplet
https://youtu.be/anrbvAyk6Pw?si=-Om-6l7kjh8NQQrC
In above linke 23:01
Ghamidi sahab gives his view on khatam used in poem
Can you please elaborate it
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16 Replies
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Word Khatam Used In An Arabic Couplet
updated 2 weeks ago
2 Members
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16
Replies
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There is only one couplet in Arabic which is cited in which khatam ( not Khatim) is used. I mentioned it in my book, Khatam e Nubuwwat aur Ahmadi Istadlaal.
It is not confirmed that it was khatam and not Khatim still it is presented as khatam.
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Has anyone else gave aeraab to this couplet…
I mean have someone else other than poet …gave aeraaab to this
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If someone given aeraab like this…..
So on what basis,it is given….
I mean in many cases khatam is given taa maftohaa…
So saying that they all did it wrong…or all were influenced by Quranic usage..is how much right to say…
2)what is usage evidence for your meaning….
I mean even we have to get evidences that yes when khatAm has izafat towards jumah…
It is used in meaning of last…not mere on the basis of word meaning of khatam can be that satisfying…
I mean for our meaning are there any poetry,and other literary evidences….
Actually sir….i am talking about research paper of yourself while yours honor wrote book ahmadi istidlal….
I mean if you have collected those usages….
Sir please publish it then …it will be ground breaking.
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Also sir any other language based book on this topic
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There is only one verse and this is of a post-Quranic poet, therefore, its usage cannot be cited because, in principle, the classical use of the word is quoted from pre-Quranic kalam.
The poet did not put the Arab (diacritical marks) because they were invented later.
All the usage of the word Khatam, Khawateem, Khatma, indicate the end of something. The Quran used this word in different forms and all mean the end. So the word Khaatam in verse 33:40 gives no other meaning but the end.
If someone insists that it has some other meaning, they need to provide evidence for their innovative idea.
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In above video,what does Ghamidi sahab mean that we can not differentiate khatam and khatim while considering wazan…..of this….
Can you please elaborate it?
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Both words have the same wazn, which means both have two syllables.
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As you mentioned sir,that poet didnt put aerab(diacritical marks )on it but rather katib has put it
1)if this is case,then can not we say that katib may have been impressed by Quranic usage.
2)you mentioned in your book that in whole kalam e arab only this is where khatam is supposed to be used as this.
3)why not hukum of tawatur can be said on it,as meaning of this from earlier times seems only one that last,as it has same mechanism of transmission as of Quran isnt it.
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Tawatur means something that is well known. It does not get lost. Secondly, it is used after the Quran therefore it cannot be presented as evidence of the use of the word in Arabic literature. It is never adopted by Arabs.
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No i am saying last meaning of it in tawatur
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I am saying tawatur has got established on meaning of expression khatam an nabiyeen…
So can not we say it has same mechanism of transmission as of quran itself…so it is not a need to cite usages to support this.
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For example when we say that Quran is transmitted by qauli and tahreeri tawatur both…
Similarly its فہمwith repect to this expression is expressed like this.
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It does not mean last. it means seal. Its use for a letter means the letter is sealed. Its use for the prophets means that their line is sealed by the Prophet Muhammad.
The meaning of the word Khatam is Mutawatar. It means Seal. Also, the meaning of the phrase Khatam al Nabiyyen is Mutaawatir too.
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Yes …seal i mean
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I mean if someone says no it does not mean finality of prophecy doesnt he goes against tawatur on its meaning…
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Yes. It is against ijma and tawatur. But this is a matter of understanding and ijma and tawatur in the matter of understanding is not considered a valid argument.
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