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Question Regarding Surah At-Talaq (65:4) And The Issue Of Underage Marriage
Assalamu Alaikum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh,
I hope you are well. I am writing to seek clarification on a question that arose during a discussion about Islam with an acquaintance here in Europe. I was unable to answer it properly and would sincerely appreciate your guidance.
During our conversation, she mentioned that the Qur’an clearly prohibits many harmful things, such as alcohol (sharab), in an explicit manner. However, she questioned why the Qur’an does not explicitly prohibit marriage to girls who have not yet begun menstruation.
She specifically referred to Surah At-Talaq (65), Ayat 4, which discusses the waiting period (‘iddah) after divorce:
وَاللَّائِي يَئِسْنَ مِنَ الْمَحِيضِ مِن نِّسَائِكُمْ إِنِ ارْتَبْتُمْ فَعِدَّتُهُنَّ ثَلَاثَةُ أَشْهُرٍ وَاللَّائِي لَمْ يَحِضْنَ ۚ وَأُولَاتُ الْأَحْمَالِ أَجَلُهُنَّ أَن يَضَعْنَ حَمْلَهُنَّ ۚ وَمَن يَتَّقِ اللَّهَ يَجْعَل لَّهُ مِنْ أَمْرِهِ يُسْرًا
And its translation:
“And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women—if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah—He will make for him of his matter ease.”
She focused on the phrase وَاللَّائِي لَمْ يَحِضْنَ (“and those who have not menstruated”) and argued that since this verse discusses ‘iddah for divorce, it implies the existence and acknowledgment of marriages involving girls who have not yet reached menstruation. From this, she concluded that the Qur’an allows or accepts underage marriage.
Her main question was:
If Islam emphasizes human dignity, mercy, and protection from harm, then why does the Qur’an not explicitly prohibit marriage to girls who have not reached physical maturity, in the same clear manner that it prohibits alcohol and other harmful practices?I would be very grateful if you could explain:
How to properly respond to the claim that Islam permits or promotes underage marriage.
I apologize if my wording is imperfect. I am not a scholar and am trying my best to understand and ask this question correctly. May Allah reward you for your time and knowledge.
JazakAllahu khayran.
Wa assalamu Alaikum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh,
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6 Replies
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Question Regarding Surah At-Talaq (65:4) And The Issue Of Underage Marriage
updated 1 month, 3 weeks ago
4 Members
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6
Replies
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To understand the issue of marriage to underage girls in Islam, it is necessary to view the Qur’anic verses in their full context. In Surah At-Talaq, Ayah 4, the phrase وَاللَّائِي لَمْ يَحِضْنَ refers only to the matter of ‘iddah. The purpose of this verse is to clarify that if a girl was previously married and has not yet reached menstruation or is pregnant, then what her waiting period (‘iddah) will be after divorce. This verse does not permit marriage or promote marriage to underage girls. The rules of ‘iddah and its duration are legal rulings related to divorce, not permission for marriage.In Islam, human dignity, protection, and avoidance of harm are fundamental principles. Any marriage is only valid when the girl has reached physical and mental maturity and her consent is possible. Islamic jurisprudence has strict protective measures regarding marriage of underage girls. The guardian or parents of the girl ensure her protection and welfare, and any harmful or forced marriage without her consent is not acceptable.Therefore, interpreting this Qur’anic verse as allowing marriage to underage girls is a misunderstanding. Islam has always prioritized human compassion and protection and has set legal and moral limits to prevent harm to minors.
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Islam has not prescribed an age limit for marriage. Islam however, directs the Muslims to follow the tradition set by the humans themselves in the light of the innate guidance provided to them, and the practice of the Prophets and Messengers which requires that only adult male and female should enter the marriage bond. By adulthood in this context we mean mental and physical maturity.
In Quran 65:4, the Quranic words are وَاللَّائِي لَمْ يَحِضْنَ. In the Arabic language, the word لَمْ is used for total and strong negation. Hence the expression cannot connote those girls who have not started to menstruate; it can only connote girls who have not menstruated in spite of reaching the age.
For comments of Ghamidi Sahab, please refer to the video below from 27:50 onward:
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To explore further, Please also read the following articles of Dr. Irfan Shahzad:
Discussion 40351 • Reply 41223
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Please also watch:
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Thank you for your reply. However, she insisted that Islam does not clearly negate it and also said that your Prophet (PBUH) married Hazrat Ayesha (RA) when she was 6 or 9
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Please see for this
My personal experience with such conversation is this, if their argument come down to age of hazrat Ayesha, then its just for sake of argument mostly and effort to embarrass you. So, You dont need to force explanation and if the person really is in search of truth, they will search themselves and reach there
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