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  • Translation Of 'Wa'Ada' In Surah At-Tawbah (9:68) In Al-Bayan

    Posted by Asfar Nawaz on June 26, 2026 at 4:16 pm

    Assalamu Alaikum,

    I would like to ask a question about Ghamidi Sahab’s translation of Surah At-Tawbah (9:68) in Al-Bayan.

    In this verse, Ghamidi Sahab translates the Arabic word Wa’ada (وَعَدَ – which literally means “promised”) as a warning (Wa’eed / وعید) instead. Usually, the explanation given for this is usage ofTahakkum (تهکم) meaning God is using the word “promise” ironically or mockingly, similar to how other verses say “give them glad tidings of a painful punishment.”

    However, when reading Ayah 68 plainly, the language sounds very straightforward, serious, and literal: ““Allah has promised the hypocrites, both men and women, and the disbelievers the Fire of Hell, wherein they will abide eternally”

    In other verses where irony is used, there is usually a clear clue in the wording (like using the word Bashir for bad news). But in Ayah 68, there is no such internal clue (Qareena) to suggest irony. It reads like a direct statement of punishment. Furthermore, it seems like the phrase Khalidina feeha (abiding eternally) emphasizes that this is a literal, permanent outcome.

    Could the scholars at AskGhamidi please clarify:

    1. If the text reads straightforwardly and lacks any internal clue (Qareena) pointing to irony (Tahakkum), what is the grammatical or textual basis for changing the meaning of Wa’ada to a flexible warning (Wa’eed) in this specific verse?

    2. Is this translation based purely on the external concept of Itmam al-Hujjah (the historical judgment on the Prophet’s direct opponents), even though the immediate Arabic wording itself does not show signs of irony?

    Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 2 months, 4 weeks ago 2 Members · 5 Replies
  • 5 Replies
  • Translation Of 'Wa'Ada' In Surah At-Tawbah (9:68) In Al-Bayan

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar June 29, 2026 at 4:12 am

    This is how language works. Consider these two sentences:

    “I promise I will be there on time. “

    “I promise I will kill you.”

    The word promise in both sentences gives different connotations. This difference has been indicated in the translation of Ghamidi saheb.

  • Asfar Nawaz

    Member June 29, 2026 at 7:41 pm

    JazakAllahu Khairan for the response, Dr. Irfan Shahzad. I agree with you that the word “promise” naturally changes its meaning depending on whether it is followed by a reward or a punishment.
    However, my question is about the translation choice made by Ghamidi Sb. In everyday speech, if someone says, “I promise I will punish you,” the word “promise” naturally becomes a threat, but it still remains a completely definite, unyielding statement.
    If the phrase “the Fire of Hell” already naturally changes the connotation of *Wa’ada* (promised) into a threat, why did Ghamidi Sahab felt the need to structurally change the meaning to a warning (*Wa’eed*) rather than keeping it as a literal promise (*Wa’da*) of punishment?
    By treating it strictly as a warning (*Wa’eed*), does it imply that this decree is flexible? This is especially confusing since the verse uses the phrase *Khalidina feeha* (abiding eternally), which seems to emphasize that the punishment is a permanent and literal certainty. I would love to hear your insights on this.
    jazakAllahu Khair

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar June 30, 2026 at 12:02 am

    You hit the right point.

    A threat, unlike a promise, is inherently flexible. Fulfilling a promise is considered a moral obligation, whereas carrying out a threat is not. In fact, refraining from acting on a threat is often regarded as an act of mercy or goodness. This is the distinction his translation is intended to convey.

  • Asfar Nawaz

    Member July 1, 2026 at 10:09 pm

    Thank you for clarifying. I apologize for asking so many questions, but I am still a bit confused about this point. If every threat is inherently flexible, then the word Khalidina feeha must also be flexible. If even a direct declaration of “eternity” can be waived, it means no wording in the Quran can ever communicate a truly permanent, unyielding punishment. Does Ghamidi Sahab believe that “eternal” punishment in Hell is not actually certain, because it falls under the category of a threat?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar July 3, 2026 at 12:34 am

    Yes, the possibility of the impermanence of the punishment of Hell is there. It is also alluded to in the verse:

    خَالِدِينَ فِيهَا مَا دَامَتِ السَّمَاوَاتُ وَالْأَرْضُ إِلَّا مَا شَاءَ رَبُّكَ ۚ إِنَّ رَبَّكَ فَعَّالٌ لِّمَا يُرِيدُ ‎﴿١٠٧﴾‏ ۞ وَأَمَّا الَّذِينَ سُعِدُوا فَفِي الْجَنَّةِ خَالِدِينَ فِيهَا مَا دَامَتِ السَّمَاوَاتُ وَالْأَرْضُ إِلَّا مَا شَاءَ رَبُّكَ ۖ عَطَاءً غَيْرَ مَجْذُوذٍ

    Then among people, some shall be unfortunate and some fortunate. So, those who are unfortunate shall land in Hell. For them is screaming and crying there.They shall remain there as long as the heavens and the earth [of that world] are intact except if your Lord wills something else. Undoubtedly, your Lord is able to do whatever He wills.

    As for the fortunate, they shall be in Paradise. They shall abide in it as long as the heavens and the earth [of that world] are intact except if your Lord wills something else– as a grant from Him that shall never cease.

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