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Interpretation Of Hadith
I have a question about your interpretation of the hadith in Sahih al-Bukhari regarding musical instruments. You mentioned that the prohibition was because instruments at that time were associated with zina, drinking and obscene gatherings, etc.
How do we know that this was the actual reason for the Prophet’s ﷺ prohibition, rather than an interpretation of the context? If those other things were the reason, why did the Prophet ﷺ specifically mention musical instruments instead of also mentioning the obscene lyrics, dancing, that are actually accompanied with musical instruments we see now a days or other sinful activities?
Shouldn’t the lyrics be the actual problem? Where one is uttering words of kufr or obscenity rather than the instruments.
Also, when visiting graves was initially prohibited, the Prophet ﷺ later explicitly allowed it, and we have an authentic hadith showing this change. If the prohibition of music was only because of its context at that time, is there any authentic hadith showing that the Prophet ﷺ later allowed musical instruments?
If not, what is the basis for interpreting the prohibition as being limited to that particular context?
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