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  • How Did Muslims Handle Civilians Prior To Slavery Being Abolished During War ?

    Posted by Omar Sami on October 19, 2026 at 8:32 pm

    Salam alaikum, the topic of slavery used to bother me a lot until i learned about sheikh Ghamdis interpretation of verses talking about slavery. His interpretation did sooth my doubts


    However, prior to this abolishment, how did the Muslims deal with civilians during war? Obviously slavery was allowed, but was enslaving civilians allowed? If it was this would really cause internal discomfort for me since civilians didn’t do anything. I am looking for evidence that enslaving non combatants is haram. could someone point out some sources?

    Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 1 week, 5 days ago 2 Members · 6 Replies
  • 6 Replies
  • How Did Muslims Handle Civilians Prior To Slavery Being Abolished During War ?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar October 21, 2026 at 5:53 am

    Muslims faced wars after the verse that forbade enslaving free men. Muslims did not enslave any free men.

  • Omar Sami

    Member October 22, 2026 at 5:13 pm

    So it has never happened (enslaving of civilians) ?

    How can the average Muslim deal with scholarly opinions that allow enslavement of civilians and anyone “supporting” the men in the battlefield like women and children?

    Unfortunately this seems to be a common view.

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar October 22, 2026 at 11:51 pm

    Academically, our scholars permitted the enslavement of free individuals taken as prisoners of war. However, in practice, the Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) and his Companions did not enslave free men or women, except the women and children of Banu Qurayza. This case was exceptional, as their fate was determined under the terms of an agreement they had made, and Saʿd ibn Muʿadh was appointed to deliver the judgment. Under this interpretation, the decision rested on that specific agreement rather than the general provisions of Islamic law (Shariah).

  • Omar Sami

    Member October 23, 2026 at 5:44 pm

    I see. So this was just fiqh? I believe most scholars who say this don’t agree with Ghamidi that the Quran cut the supply of new slaves.

    So one can reasonably conclude that these were just fiqh disucsisons, but the proper position / correct position is that free persons were never enslaved before and after abolishment by the Quran and this is haram? With the exception of banu qurayza?

    EDIT: I mean prohibtion of Free persons including the women and children who were present in the battle field*

    • This reply was modified 2 weeks, 1 day ago by  Omar Sami.
  • Omar Sami

    Member October 25, 2026 at 12:13 pm

    I mean prohibtion of Free persons including the women and children who were present in the battle field* 

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar October 26, 2026 at 11:34 pm

    Right.

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