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Does Islamic Fiqh Hold Rulers As Accountable As Ordinary Citizens Under Crime ?
Question 1: Is the Death Penalty Islamically Justifiable for an Act of Indecency?
Recently, reports emerged that Saudi judicial authorities sentenced two Bangladeshi individuals to death for an alleged act of indecency. My question is: Can the death penalty be justified under Islamic law for such an act of indecency
Question 2: Is a Muslim Ruler Subject to the Same Criminal Law as Other Citizens?
My second question concerns the killing of the Saudi journalist Jamal Khashoggi in 2018. Mohammed bin Salman ( MBS) was named in assessments by the US intelligence community as having approved an operation to capture or kill Khashoggi. However, he has not personally faced a criminal trial over the killing.
[(Isn’t it theological hypocrisy when scholars invoke Sharia to justify rulers’ authority but fail to demand accountability when they are credibly implicated in heinous crimes, while the poor face execution without fair trials? Does Islamic justice apply equally to rulers and ordinary citizens?)]
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Does Islamic Fiqh Hold Rulers As Accountable As Ordinary Citizens Under Crime ?
updated 2 weeks, 6 days ago
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Apart from the authenticity of the reports, in Islam, the death penalty is only against intentional murder and for causing disruption, chaos, or terror in society (Fasad fi Alrd).
A Muslim ruler is not above Shariah law.
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