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Why Doesn’t The Quran Mention Every Single Rule
No rule book in this world exists of all possible things that would be allowed or not allowed. You would have to create an infinite book.
God’s word is clear. Also human fitrah is used for many moral reasonings. As I said it is a requirement of simple logic that if you are directly aiding a murderer knowingly you are part of the crime. What is so hard it is erstand about this that it requires a verse to clarify?
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53 Replies
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Why Doesn’t The Quran Mention Every Single Rule
updated 3 years, 8 months ago
2 Members
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53
Replies
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I am not asking to list everything .. just the common principle would be enough..
However, certain verses where God lists EVERYTHING .. if he leaves anything out, we have to reason that God did not want to mention it..
For example : inheritance to the grandson. God did NOT mention any inheritance to the grandson or grandparents.. so it doesn’t make sense to assume any law.
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Yes and the common principles are there. Don’t help each other in unrighteousness.
I don’t know about inheritance law as I haven’t done much research
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Inheritance verse specifies (tries to) exactly every condition of the relation to whom the inheritance should be distributed.. and it doesn’t mention grandchildren.. now we can’t say God will not list everything and apply your own reasoning.. because God did try to list everything there .. so something God missed, it means God did NOT want to include that relation.
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This is your own usul and you should bring proof for it being correct
Certain verses specify to a certain extent and certain verses don’t. It is about context and also using common sense.
I’m pretty sure aiding in murder comes under aiding in unrighteousness
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If aiding in murder by selling knife to him is a sin, is aiding temple construction also aiding polytheism (as you asked earlier) .. what does Ghamidi saab say on construction of temple ?
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Ghamidi sahabs ruling was based on the fact pakistan is a nation state and that all citizens are equal
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I am talking about muslims donating to temple issue.. what does Ghamidi saab say on it ?
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I don’t know what he says.
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You can ask SS on it or other members who know Ghamidi saab’s views on it.. if a Muslim should NOT donate to temples because on the principle it is assisting in evil ?
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Dr SS believes if you are donating to support the rights of them being able to ahve the temple (to take them out of being oppressed) then it should be allowed. But he did make to clear there could be more views
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But in that way, you are assisting them in committing the biggest sin , right ? Is there any example in Prophet’s life or Sahabas where Muslims donated money to build a temple of polytheism/idol worship ?
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I don’t believe this incident exists.
I personally don’t believe it is allowed to donate to them. Unless they are being oppressed maybe by making it very clear you could help them in getting rights
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What does Qur’an say on assisting polytheists on building their temple ? Since scholars are confused, so common sense doesn’t work here.. I believe Qur’an should have said something on this matter .. as it is a general principle..
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As I said according to my understanding I don’t think it is allowed in a personal capacity. I’m not sure of many scholars who would disagree with me here
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Faisal bhai said it is upto one’s own will.. that means it is not made haraam ..
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I think he meant the person is free to choose what he wants like he should judge whether he believes it to be haraam or not based on his reasoning and research.
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That means it is not clearly agreed upon to be made haraam.. why is Qur’an silent on such an important issue ?
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I believe it is not silent
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Please give your reasoning from the verse to make it absolutely clear then.. as Qur’an is “detailed explanation of all things ”
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5:2
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“And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression” this part ??
What does SS say on the verse 5:2 ? Does it make cooperation in polytheism prohibited ?
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I don’t know what he says
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I think it is important to know his interpretation of verse 5:2 .. are we reading it with correct context ? What does “cooperation” in “sin” mean here ?
What is the exact context of the verse ? Remember you accused me of taking verses out of context.. so you have to prove that this verse is talking about exactly the principle you are saying and is not specific to certain specific people/time .
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But I think it would prohibit such a thing
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Let’s prove it .. by a separate question.. does 5:2 prohibit any assistance to polytheism temple building ?
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It prohibits helping others in impiety as a general principle which in my view can be extrapolated to meaning building temples as shirk that goes on there is impiety
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Please raise a separate topic with exactly 5:2 mention and let’s get expert view on its context .. 5:51 clearly says don’t make Jews and Christians as friends.. but people say it was for specific time and specific jews/christians ..and can’t be applied now..
We have to prove 5:2 applies for all time and the people .. and all types of sins.. and 5:2 is not in a specific context.
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Marrying a Christian woman is allowed, and also giving her money which she will use in the propagation of her faith is allowed, I suppose. Aren’t those Muslim husbands “cooperating in sin ” of her considering Jesus as her lord ?
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You do not have a choice if she is your wife to control her spending with money you have given her because she is your wife. You can make it clear you don’t want that to happen but it is now her money given to her as a right rather than as a charity
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So, that means if you know it that she will spend it in that act, you still would give her ?
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How can I bring usul proof ? Isn’t it common sense that God listed every relation and if something is not mentioned, God didn’t want that relation to be included ?
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As I said I have not researched into that matter yet.
The way you bring proof for usul is by arguing how the style and context for the Quran in that certain area conforms to the understanding you are projecting onto it
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We can discuss this part in the inheritance thread if you like.. there I showed how unjust and unclear the verses of distribution of inheritance are..
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Maybe after I have done some of my own studying of the topic
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It doesn’t require any studying .. just simple maths .. and common sense .. to see how unjust the verses are.. I gave examples too..
Also, the fact that the verses are confusing and unclear too.. that Ghamidi saab tried to make them clear.. just see that thread..
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Maybe I’m not as smart as you and need to study it. I will do it my way by consulting the Quran and scholars etc and that will take time. It is not on my immediate list of things I am currently studying and I hope to get to it on a later date
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Ok .. btw, I am not smart either .. and my knowledge is very less on Islam too.
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We can all learn إن شاء الله .
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When Allah talks about a subject, and discusses the details of that issue, while prohibiting some things in that, and if something is left unsaid on that matter, doesn’t it mean Allah didn’t mean to prohibit the unsaid matters ?
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We would have to look at this issue by issue with context and reasoning
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Yes, but what does God say about his scheme of Qur’an understanding ? He says that making anything haraam which he did not make haraam is actually haraam.. now many times we see, scholars use their intellect to extrapolate God’s message and term certain verses temporary/permanent and put more things as haraam than what God said clearly.. is it allowed ? What is the method which God says ?
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He says use your intellect. I don’t see the scholars extrapolating massive things- it is all within reason and backed up by the text too
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If we have to use our intellect only, then what is the need for Allah to list out all the possible relations in the ruling ? If you use your intellect and add even 1 relation to what Allah did, it is overriding his judgment.
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Please understand- in some cases Allah listed out all of them according to his plan and wisdom. He gave us a mind also.
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I am only talking about those cases where Allah listed out EXACTLY all the relations .. I am not talking about the cases where Allah gave a general ruling, there it is fine to use our reasoning to add/subtract anything while adhering to the principle of the verse.
However, when Allah listed out EXACTLY all the relations, then adding someone on top of that list, is overriding his judgment.
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Again- we would go through the issue and use reason and intellect.
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I don’t understand the use of reason and intellect there when Allah has clearly listed everything. Unless, of course you mean, Allah was not clear in his verses.
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If you don’t understand their reasoning then present your own view with evidences and agree to disagree. Allah gave us humans minds to interpret his book
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Mind to interpret his message, not to add/subtract from his intended message.
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The people who you are claiming are adding or subtracting obviously don’t believe that and count it as a logical extrapolations
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That’s why Allah said making something haraam when he didn’t make it haraam is actually haraam.
If Allah clearly said “Relation A and Relation B are to be given the inheritance” .. you can try your best to interpret the meaning of Allah’s quote.. but you can’t say “Relation A and B and also C should be given the inheritance” .. and justify it saying C is my own logical addition .
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If only it was as simple as that. If your logic does not accept the people’s views no one is forcing it in you
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It is being forced because it is being projected as Islamic view.. and not the scholar’s own view.
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