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Giving Haraam Food To Those Who Eat It
Is this act allowed? It feels wrong but there doesn’t seem to be any evidence to make it haraam
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23 Replies
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Giving Haraam Food To Those Who Eat It
updated 4 years, 2 months ago
2 Members
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23
Replies
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So is the reason it’s not haraam just because there’s no evidence (I’ve seen the video)?
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Haram is very clear and explicit.
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Could it come under ithm? Because these people have the right of being safe from us allowing them to do haraam things?
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I don’t think so but I personally would not be involved in any such transaction at will. However, if something like this (Haram meat) comes in my possession by any chance and there are people who can feed off from it, then its better to feed them instead of wasting it.
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I ask this because we ordered pizza and I misread it and it has some haraam toppings on it. I mean my neighbours weren’t starving or anything but I gave it to them. Would the above idea of this being ithm apply?
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What if it was the same scenario but instead of food it was alcohol?
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its good that you gave it to them but from where would you get a hang of alcohol, you naughty naughty
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🤣
Sometimes people gift these things in corporations.
And does it count as being a danger to them and ithm? Because the reasons of these prohibitions is to stop people from
1. Eating things that affect psyche in a bad way (doesn’t apply nowadays since all food is cooked anyway)
2. Because it is taking the life of an animal without sanction
And I am allowing it permitting them to do it
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These dietary prohibitions are for you as a Muslim and this rationale though important in understanding the spirit of directive, but is of a secondary nature. You’re free to deny them access to these meals on any ground whether health related or on the basis of ensuring that they stay clean, but that’s your informed decision, the problem only arises when someone declares this act unconditionally Haram from religious perspective without any basis for it.
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Could a religious basis to declare it unconditionally haraam be ithm or am I stretching the definition too far?
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That would be stretching it because dietary prohibitions are not based on principle of ithm, rather, they’re based on principle of tayyibaat and khabaees.
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No i mean that these people have a right to not be helped in doing anything haraam (whatever the reason of it being haraam is) by me.
Also doesn’t it go against Amar bil maruf and yanha an almunkar? I mean this is a directive and isn’t it going against the clear wording of it? Does it matter why the munkar is munkar?
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munkar are evils that are almost universally accepted as evil e.g. lying
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And the first thing, do these people hold this right?
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sorry! I couldn’t follow.
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So- do people have a right from me, that I don’t allow them to do haraam? EG their right is that I never allow them, or aid them to execute an action that would displease the Almighty
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Is the prohibition only for you being a conscious Muslim or is it for non-muslims as well?
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The prohibition is for all humans, whether they follow the truth or not is not my concern. I should not help anyone in doing anything wrong. I could say the same that is the prohibition of shirk for me or everyone? Why is halal food different?
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Even Shirk is a prohibition for you only from your perspective.
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And I believe my perspective to be true.
So if my actions are permitting or even aiding/enabling someone to do shirk then how could I say that I truly believe in what I believe in? I am aiding someone in a crime against God.
It is like I say murder is wrong and then I hand a psychopath a knife and say go kill someone
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You give food to someone because it is a basic human need and so that they can stay alive, why would you hand someone a knife who you know is a psychopath?
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Yes but these humans weren’t going to die. Even for me I’m allowed to eat food that would normally haraam.
But this is akin to the psychopath situation because there is no urgency or pressure – I am simply aiding them in a crime (even if they don’t know yet)
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