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4:136 انزل نزل
45. In this verse, the verb أَنزَلَ is used for the Torah and the word نَزَّلَ for the Qur’ān. What is the reason for this difference? Imām Amīn Ahsan Islāhī writes:
… those who are aware of the delicacies of the Arabic language know that the word َأنْزَل means to merely reveal while نَزَّلَ means to reveal in an elaborate way and gradually. This difference of verbs throws light on the nature of revelation of the Torah and the Qur’ān. (Amīn Ahsan Islāhī, Tadabbur-i Qur’ān, vol. 2, 401)
This is Ghamidi sahabs footnote. How was the revelation of the Quran more gradual or elaborate than the Torah?
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4:136 انزل نزل
updated 3 years, 6 months ago
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In Nouman Ali Khan’s sarf studies it is explained a bit.
I understood Ghamidi sahab a bit wrong. But then the question is how is the Torah’s revelation not overtime and elaborate? Ghamidi sahab himself says Deuteronomy is the final presentation of the Torah so it must of had a similar scheme.
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Quran is very different in both its content and its nature of revelation than Torah. Quran focuses on both Kitab and Hikmah parts with equal emphasis along with another objective of preserving the itmam-e-hujjah of Rasul till the day of judgement, while Torah on other hand, was mainly focused on Kitab part because their immediate job (i.e. Bani-Israel) was to establish Shahdah on other nations in the presence of prophets living among them. Therefore, its true that it seems like Deuteronomy was a final arrangement but considering the nature of both their contents and the purpose they were meant to serve, it can be easily said that Quran indeed required a more elaborative and gradual approach.
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Makes sense!
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Aal-e-Imran – 3:3
Arabic
نَزَّلَ عَلَيۡكَ ٱلۡكِتَٰبَ بِٱلۡحَقِّ مُصَدِّقًا لِّمَا بَيۡنَ يَدَيۡهِ وَأَنزَلَ ٱلتَّوۡرَىٰةَ وَٱلۡإِنجِيلَ
How was the injeel a less gradual process also? NAK says that because Torah and injeel are already done with but the Quran is gradually still going on this style is used.
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