As per Ustaz Javed Ahmad Ghamidi’s explanation about abolition of slavery by Islam, he says that it was supposed to be ended gradually for existing slaves who were unable to survive on their on but Islam ended to make any new slaves. The question is, why it was not possible even after Prophet pbuh passed away and khilafat i rashida had been their for 30-40 years with such a rich empire to support those existing slaves? It appears to me that it could have easily been ended if they wouldhave taken/ understood it as an islamic ordinance. Why it was not ended during that period?
What happened after the demise of prophet Muhammad SAW is also clear in the light of history. Unfortunately, the Rashidun Caliphate did not last more than 3 decades, and even during that time they were faced with many challenges such as wars and droughts. Those who took over after them were not very focused on religion as presented in the Quran, and that’s why we see many other misconceptions being born during that period as well. Of course, as you stated, slavery could have been gradually abolished during that period, but it unfortunately flourished during that time.
Necessary cookies are absolutely essential for the website to function properly. This category only includes cookies that ensures basic functionalities and security features of the website. These cookies do not store any personal information.
Any cookies that may not be particularly necessary for the website to function and is used specifically to collect user personal data via analytics, ads, other embedded contents are termed as non-necessary cookies. It is mandatory to procure user consent prior to running these cookies on your website.