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Slavery After The Time Of Prophet Muhammad SAW
As per Ustaz Javed Ahmad Ghamidi’s explanation about abolition of slavery by Islam, he says that it was supposed to be ended gradually for existing slaves who were unable to survive on their on but Islam ended to make any new slaves. The question is, why it was not possible even after Prophet pbuh passed away and khilafat i rashida had been their for 30-40 years with such a rich empire to support those existing slaves? It appears to me that it could have easily been ended if they wouldhave taken/ understood it as an islamic ordinance. Why it was not ended during that period?
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9 Replies
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Slavery After The Time Of Prophet Muhammad SAW
updated 2 years ago
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Ghamidi sahab has explained Quran’s perspective on slavery in a lot of detail. For reference, it can be found here:
What happened after the demise of prophet Muhammad SAW is also clear in the light of history. Unfortunately, the Rashidun Caliphate did not last more than 3 decades, and even during that time they were faced with many challenges such as wars and droughts. Those who took over after them were not very focused on religion as presented in the Quran, and that’s why we see many other misconceptions being born during that period as well. Of course, as you stated, slavery could have been gradually abolished during that period, but it unfortunately flourished during that time.
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Though Islam abolished slavery but it continued because
Some People misinterpreted 2 Quran Surahs
Surah Mominoon and Surah Mahrij and practiced slavery.
Slavery continued and was abolished finally by Saudi Arabia in 1960 after pressure from Britain and other Western countries.
Mauritania abolished slavery in 1982
40 million people are still in some form of slavery. These are my findings.
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Please see this response by Ghamidi Sahab:
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Please also refer to the video below from 24:22 to 33:03
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Thank You So much to all of you…
Everything is so well Explained in these videos and writings that it clarifies all my confusions on the topic.
Now, it totally makes sense to me that on one hand “gerdenain Churhao” is an urge to muslims as a good deed and on the other hand how muslims could be allowed to “ Gerdanain pukro”!
Makes sense … Jakallah Khair ..!
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Good question !
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Assalam alaikum,
I heard in one of Ustad Ghamidi Sahab lecture that capturing slaves after a war was prohibited but I read a Hadith in Trimidhi , Hadith no. 3017 narrated bas below
Narrated Abu Sa’eed Al-Khudri:
We captured some women on the Day of Awtas and they had husbands among their people. That was mentioned to the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) so Allah revealed: ‘…And women already married, except those whom your right hands possess… (4:24)’
Can someone please explain when capturing slaves was prohibited ,why these women were captured ?
Jazakallah khair
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This has nothing to do with slaves, it relates to the situation where already married women were captured during war, in that case, if they choose to marry any other man, they were given exception that they can if they choose to, in accordance with the already held custom of Arabs where previous Nikah was considered ineffective, as soon as a woman became a war captive.
Please also refer to the video below from 12:02 to 13:40
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Please also refer to the video below from 1:11:16 to 1:16:39
Sponsor Ask Ghamidi
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