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Was Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم Illiterate?
Some people claim umiy means gentile or it simply means some money not well versed in scripture.
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13 Replies
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Was Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم Illiterate?
updated 3 years, 12 months ago
3 Members
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13
Replies
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Al-Furqan – 25:5
Arabic
وَقَالُوٓاْ أَسَٰطِيرُ ٱلۡأَوَّلِينَ ٱكۡتَتَبَهَا فَهِىَ تُمۡلَىٰ عَلَيۡهِ بُكۡرَةً وَأَصِيلًا
This ayah also seems to imply that prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم wrote
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Also, it is claimed that as American habt reading and writing would be very likely.
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The verse you mentioned talk about earliear books not Quran.
The history tells us that when surah iqrah ayahs were revealed, Prophet Mohammad Saw said he didnt know how to read. Also. There were Katibs to write Quran.
In Bible, it was also mentioned that unlettered prophet will come who will speak words of God (Dont remember reference)
I will say Prophet Mohammad saw can not read or write.-
The verse is talking about the Quran
That Hadith is weak not only by sanad but also matn
The bible verse would be interesting
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You are ryt. its talking about Quran. I will assume it has been written by Katibs.
As in Surah Ankaboot ayah 48, (reference taken from 1st link given below) Allah says Prophet Mohamad didnt read or write.
I couldnot find Ghamidi sb video but you can listen to these two vid
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Al-‘Ankabut – 29:48
Arabic
وَمَا كُنتَ تَتۡلُواْ مِن قَبۡلِهِۦ مِن كِتَٰبٍ وَلَا تَخُطُّهُۥ بِيَمِينِكَۖ إِذًا لَّٱرۡتَابَ ٱلۡمُبۡطِلُونَ
All this ayah is saying is adding to one of the possibilities I have above- that it refers to not knowing much about religious scriptures
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Possibly u r correct.
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What we know with certainty is that the word ‘ummi‘ was commonly used for non-ahle-kitab Arabs of the time since they had not received any scripture. Quran has also used the same word for prophet SAW which is commonly translated as unlettered.
We do get hints from hadith narratives that prophet SAW could at least read, but nothing can be said with certainty, as there are differing opinions on this.
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So wouldn’t it be more likely that ummi was simply the Jews way of referring to gentiles? Or does it have some meaning that necessarily implies that the prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم was unlettered?
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Please read my comment above. Then tell me which one of my human faculties can I use to answer your follow up question?
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We know with certainty that it means gentiles as they hadn’t received scripture. So I just want it make sure that we can’t use this verse to imply that prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم was illiterate- and that this is simply a matter of history.
Have I understood correctly?
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“but nothing can be said with certainty, as there are differing opinions on this.”
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