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84:11-12 Al-Bayan Note
[For that very day] O man!20 You also are toiling on towards21 your Lord and are going to meet Him. Then he whose record is given to him [there] in his right hand will receive an easy reckoning,22 and he will go back rejoicing to his people.23 And he whose record is handed out to him from behind his back24 [into his tied up hands] will call for death and shall enter Hell.25 He remained engrossed among his kinfolk. He thought that he would never have to return anywhere. Yes, why not! [why should he be left with his misdeeds and not called to account]? His Lord was ever watching over him. (6-15)
25. Though the words “he will call for death” should have apparently come after the next verse since they will be uttered after the sinner enters Hell, yet literary eloquence demands that these words should be placed earlier to bring them exactly parallel to the details of the fate of the righteous.
I have two questions.
1. Why should the calling out for destruction be after entering hell? When the person realised his book is handed in his left hand of course he will realise he will enter hell so will cry out
2. What literary eloquence is there in mentioning them the wrong way around (if it is conceded that it is the wrong way)?
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5 Replies
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84:11-12 Al-Bayan Note
updated 3 years, 1 month ago
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5
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It is mentioned some other places that he’ll dwellers will ask for death after entered the Hell. See the use of the same word Thubura.
It is a style in of eoquence to put forward the result fist before telling the stages. We use it in our daily use of language.
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Yes but then asking for destruction when entering hell doesn’t negate them calling out for it when they are handed their book. They can easily call out for destruction in both places and that’s understandable. What’s the reason to change the order.
If you don’t mind could you give an example of daily use? Could one be that a father talks about his son taking exams and says ‘he will say I didn’t studied. He will fail the test’ does this make sense?
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This website says that fa implies immediacy. So فيصلى سعيرا is after وأما من أوتي كتابه وراء ظهره
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Could it be that the crying for destruction and entering hell is occurring at the same time and immediately after? The waw is just atf for the fa?
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“son taking exams and says ‘he will say I didn’t studied. He will fail the test’ does this make sense?”
This example does not fit here. God is telling the scene done after the failure, He is describing the situation and mentions the result first. However, it is possible that they yelled out after receiving their deed book. but Islahi and Ghamidi preferred the other meaning.
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