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Quran 3:21 – How Could Muhammad صلى الله عليه Warn Those Who Killed?
Aal-e-Imran – 3:21
Arabic
إِنَّ ٱلَّذِينَ يَكۡفُرُونَ بِـَٔايَٰتِ ٱللَّهِ وَيَقۡتُلُونَ ٱلنَّبِيِّۦنَ بِغَيۡرِ حَقٍّ وَيَقۡتُلُونَ ٱلَّذِينَ يَأۡمُرُونَ بِٱلۡقِسۡطِ مِنَ ٱلنَّاسِ فَبَشِّرۡهُم بِعَذَابٍ أَلِيمٍ
This verse is talking about Jews that have already passed away show can they be told about a painful punishment?
Isn’t it like blaming Muslims and telling them they will have a painful punishment because of the sins of their conquering forefathers?
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10 Replies
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Quran 3:21 – How Could Muhammad صلى الله عليه Warn Those Who Killed?
updated 3 years ago
3 Members
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10
Replies
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Question is not clear.
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The ayah tells Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم to warn people who killed messengers. Probably referring to Jews. But the Jews of the time never killed any messengers so how could the ones who killed messengers be warned?
It’s not فبشر قوم الذين قتلوا النبيين.
Also how’s it the fault of the Jews of the time that their ancestors killed messengers?
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إِنَّ الَّذِينَ يَكْفُرُونَ بِآيَاتِ اللَّهِ وَيَقْتُلُونَ النَّبِيِّينَ بِغَيْرِ حَقٍّ وَيَقْتُلُونَ الَّذِينَ يَأْمُرُونَ بِالْقِسْطِ مِنَ النَّاسِ فَبَشِّرْهُم بِعَذَابٍ أَلِيمٍr
(Qur’an3:21).
Saheeh: Those who disbelieve in the signs of Allah and kill the prophets without right and kill those who order justice from among the people – give them tidings of a painful punishment.
بے شک جولوگ الله کے حکموں کا انکار کرتے ہیں اور پیغمبروں کو ناحق قتل کرتے ہیں اور لوگوں میں سے انصاف کا حکم کرنے والوں کو قتل کرتے ہیں سو انہیں دردناک عذاب کی خوشخبری سنا دی
Shoaib, This verse is very clear in its meaning/interpretation . Nowhere, it says that Allah will punish current Jews for the sins of their ancestors. Allah says to Prophet Muhammad pbuh to inform Jews that their ancestors will be punished for their great sins like disbelieving in the signs of Allah and killing the prophets without right and killing those who order justice from among the people.
It is very obvious from above verse that warning is being given to the Jews that if they repeat any of the above mentioned sins committed by their ancestors, they would also be given painful punishment.
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Ok let’s think about it logically.
الذين يقتلون النبيين
The Jews have been in Arabia for a few generations now. There hasn’t been a nabi there or anywhere for about 600 years now since masih صلى الله عليه وسلم.
So when God says فبشرهم who does the هم go back to? Clearly it goes back to ‘الذين يقتلون النبيين’. So I think my question still stands
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Brother, this verse is very clear in its meaning. Please do not try to twist or make it complicated.
Jizak-Allah
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Please show me where I have twisted anything
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It is about behavior . If the same behavior is found in the then Jews, their opposition and fighting against the prophet Muhammad they are told that they see the same punishment for the same behavior . They were so very like in their attitude with their forefathers that they were counted with them.
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Perhaps it’s also like if I go to America today and say ‘you’re the ones who killed the Japanese’. My statement is logically incorrect because those who killed Japanese are probably dead now but it still makes sense
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but if they are doing the same with some other nation, you are supposed to be correct to say you are the people the same and now you are doing again to someone else.
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But the Jews of the time did not do this to any other nation right? They may have killed righteous people but of course they couldn’t have killed messengers
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