Because word Kitaab was used in the earlier verse i.e. 45:16 in the meaning of Book. Therefore, it would’ve been a literary incoherence to use the same word in a different meaning in the very next verse.
Wherever it was used in meaning of Shariah, I think it’s well substantiated from the context and flow of Kalam. And if we take it in any other meaning other than Shariah, it always creates the inconsistencies which Muslims are facing even today because of those verses.
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