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  • The Meaning Of Khamr In Relation To Biblical Texts About Alcohol

    Posted by Ahmad Shoaib on April 16, 2021 at 3:00 am

    From what I have researched and learned, khamr means intoxication. And we see that the bible does not outright prohibit alcohol but rather warns against intoxication and heavy drinking.

    Even in the Quran we are told not to come to prayer until we know what we are saying. Now one would have to be very heavily intoxicated if they cannot understand what they are saying.

    So if the ayah إننا الخمر والميسر رجس من عمل الشيطان is seen in this light (5:90), what are the consequences.

    If someone drinks a beer they will not get drunk and they will still be able to understand what they are saying.

    The Quran doesn’t say that whatever intoxicates in large amounts is haraam in small amounts. Rather if the word خمر means intoxication the implication would be that you can just drink as much as you know wouldn’t intoxicate you. But if you did get carelessly intoxicated it would be a sin.

    Have I made a mistake somewhere? What does خمر actually mean because if course langauge is bayaan and not mantaq.

    Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 2 years, 11 months ago 3 Members · 13 Replies
  • 13 Replies
  • The Meaning Of Khamr In Relation To Biblical Texts About Alcohol

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar April 19, 2021 at 9:33 am

    Khamar is Rijs, Khabees. small amout of Rijs is still the rijs.

    In the case of Prayer, God mentions the often occurred situation after drinking alcohol. To take opposite meaning of a statement as self evident or proven is never an argument to make some thing Hala or proven. if you follow this wrong way of inference, you can make any opposite result from any directive and can make a new set of shariah.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor April 19, 2021 at 11:17 am

      But does khamr mean alcohol or simply intoxication?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar April 21, 2021 at 5:16 am

    Intoxication, which is used for wine.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor April 21, 2021 at 5:21 am

      If the word itself means intoxication then surely that would mean only intoxication is haraam. Where is the principle that what intoxicates in large amounts is haraam in small amounts in the Quran?

      If only intoxication is haraam then a weak beer would surely be allowed?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar April 21, 2021 at 5:40 am

    Is there any specification in this statement which tells it is Haram only in large amount?

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor April 21, 2021 at 5:42 am

      Well if it says ‘intoxication’ is haraam then that would only occur in larger amounts

  • Ahmad Shoaib

    Contributor April 21, 2021 at 7:25 am

    So for example one sip or glass of beer perhaps won’t intoxicate you. But a few glasses would. Is the beer itself haraam? If so what is e evidence? Or is it the intoxication that is haraam? If the word khamr is being used then one sip wouldn’t be haraam I’m guessing

  • ودود

    Member April 22, 2021 at 2:05 am

    I dont think alcoholic drink is haram until it intoxicate you. However, different quantities intoxicate different people. In addition, there is something called “sedde zariya” meaning the path leading to sin. Drinking a small amount might lead you to sin one day. So thats why it’s not recommended by the scholars. However one should use his or her own judgement to decide how close to the limits it is safe to go.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor April 22, 2021 at 2:36 am

      Also alcohol is drunken for many religious ceremonies by Jews. I mean unless it’s a corruption then this view would be supported that only intoxication itself is haraam:

      Judaism relates to consumption of alcohol, particularly of wine, in a complex manner. Wine is viewed as a substance of import and it is incorporated in religious ceremonies, and the general consumption of alcoholic beverages is permitted, however inebriation (drunkenness) is discouraged. (Wikipedia)

  • Ahmad Shoaib

    Contributor May 1, 2021 at 6:53 pm

    Any more ideas?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar May 4, 2021 at 10:45 pm

    There is no intoxicant is haram, now the subject is altogether haram.

    Now comes the question if some amount doesn’t affect some one, we would say, it doesn’t not say it is haram only in case it affects you. It is haram because it usually affects, that is why it is declared totally haram.For every directive, we can find exceptions but exceptions are not considered in making a law.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor May 5, 2021 at 2:20 am

      ‘it doesn’t not say it is haram only in case it affects you’

      But that’s exactly what I’m arguing. That is what it seems to say.

      For example if I say ‘getting drunk is haraam’ (which is what the ayah says but uses the word intoxication) then that means that a sip of alcohol is not haraam.

      The question would arise why is the word sakrah not used?

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar May 9, 2021 at 2:53 am

    Name for wine is al-Khamr, nor sakr. No other intoxicants is usually used in Arab. God used the usual practice of drinking wine and disapproves it. this is the style of Quran to let people infer from the specific general directives. He made wine haram. not some part of it.

    for example stealing is haram. we can’t say, unless stealing bother the owner of a thing, it is not haram.

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