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  • 8:35 Salah Before Islam

    Posted by Ahmad Shoaib on June 18, 2021 at 9:00 pm

    Ghamidi sahab usually says that the salah was present before Islam, doesn’t this ayah negate his stance?

    Al-Anfal – 8:35


    وَمَا كَانَ صَلَاتُهُمۡ عِندَ ٱلۡبَيۡتِ إِلَّا مُكَآءً وَتَصۡدِيَةًۚ فَذُوقُواْ ٱلۡعَذَابَ بِمَا كُنتُمۡ تَكۡفُرُونَ

    Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 2 years, 12 months ago 3 Members · 6 Replies
  • 6 Replies
  • 8:35 Salah Before Islam

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar June 18, 2021 at 11:47 pm

    This tells the innovation and digression they has introduced to Salah, as they did with Hajj, they took off their cloth and came out from the back of their houses. Hajj we know even from Quran that it was announced by Araham. There too we find that God asks Abraham and Ishmael to purify His house for those who do Ruku’ and Sajda’ which refer to Salah.

    Referring Salah without any details or reference itself an evidence that audience knew what Salah is and God is criticizing their wrong practices.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor June 18, 2021 at 11:51 pm

      Yes and the Quran says it was nothing BUT this. So when Ghamidi sahab says people generally prayed before the prophet how is that true?

    • Adnan Karim

      Member June 19, 2021 at 12:13 am

      Zorastrian and jews had salah..even have today…. in one form or other.

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor June 19, 2021 at 12:13 am

      I know and this is a strong evidence. So why does the Quran say this? Is there a specific context I’m missing?

    • Ahmad Shoaib

      Contributor June 19, 2021 at 12:16 am

      Because quranists use this to say that the Zoroastrians interpolated the salah into Islam. I don’t necessarily agree but this ayah poses a slight issue

    • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

      Scholar June 19, 2021 at 12:42 am

      it is a way to show contempt. we know there salah does contain dua, sajda, but God is showing His contempt that their salah is nothing but just these acts of nonsense.

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