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Polygamy And Consent In Sharia
I’ve seen all the discussions on this matter but there are some questions.
Questions:-
1)What if there is no strong need or reason for a person to marry two or more women?.
As Islam has not imposed any restrictions but also said that one can marry two or more women on the basis of valid reasons. Examples given in quran :- to marry widows or orphans .
2)What if a person is unable to act justly even after he strive to do so after marrying two or three women .
Will he accountable for his act?
3) If a person go for 2nd marriage without consent then?.. Isn’t this Injustice ? He must be accountable for this act right?. I do agree that Islam has not said on the matter of consent but Allah has said to act justly. So If a person go for second marriage or third without the consent of the previous ones he must be accountable right???..
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10 Replies
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Polygamy And Consent In Sharia
updated 2 years, 1 month ago
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10
Replies
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*So indirectly It is haram to marry for the 2nd or 3rd time without consent..
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Please see:
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1) So Can a person still marry if there is no strong reason or need?.
Yess there can be various types of reason and need but if there is not? If he just wants to marry because he wishes to?
2) According to ghamidi sahab, one should obviously ask his first wife but if he don’t?
I am not saying about the secret marriage but if a person does it openly in a society but without consent then??..
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Can someone explain me…
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No explicit law-making has been done by religion w.r.t the consent, because its applicability may vary in different societies. At that time, it was quite normal to marry more than one, and women had no issue with that. Also, it was implied understanding of that society, that a man will marry more than one.
In our societies however, the marriages are done under implied understanding that a man will marry only one lady, therefore, in such a situation, injustice may happen in some situations. And to counter that injustice, room for lawmaking is available with the parliament. In the absence of such a law-making, a God-fearing Muslim should always seek first wife’s permission when opting for second marriage.
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Thank you sir for your response.
1)In the absence of such law making, how can we conclude that a God fearing muslim should always seek his first wife’s permission before opting for second marriage?.
Is this because a Man is backing out of a commitment to his first wife?.
So if he break this commitment, he will ultimately hurt a sentiment and will commit a Sin?.
2) Is there any explicit law has been done by a religion that if there is no strong reason or need , a man cannot opt for second marriage?..
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1) We cannot conclude any such thing, a person has to decide for himself in all honesty in the absence of such law, either by God or by parliament.
2) No, this decision has been left to the individual and to the society at a collective level, to make law if they see any injustice or oppression because of such practice.
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Okay I have understood everything but in the previous response you said that in the absence of such law, a god fearing man should always ask his first wife’s permission before opting for 2nd marriage …so how can we understand that a god fearing man should ask his first wife’s permission and also if he do not ask then will he commit a sin ?.
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That was said considering our societal values of today’s time in the Indo-Pak sub-continent specially, to ensure caution and to be on a safer side, as an extension of ‘Taqwa‘. Ultimately, it is an individual’s decision.
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To be on a safer side, you mean, if the children do not accept or society and especially a wife in today’s world will never agree and there is a high possibility that she may ask for a divorce.
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