I’ve heard javed ahmed ghamidi sb said Banu Qurayza tribe was killed on the basic implimentation of itmam Al hujjah while other scholars say because they breach the convent. So my question is Ghamidi sahab says the it was due to itmam al hujjah so they killed them. But he said the islamic shariah cannot be implemented on non muslim because “La ikraha fidden”. So, does killing of jews and this Qur’an verse contradict eachother?
As per your statement “Consequences of itmam e hujja for ahle kitab was to either pay jizya or banished from land”. Please refer to this video of Javed Ghamidi sb.
Itmam-e-Hujjat is not part of Sharia, it is a Sunnat of Allah where rejectors of a his Rasul (messenger) are punished after completion of proof, either in the form of divine punishment or through the hands of followers of the Rasul. General punishment of itmam-e-hujjat for polytheists was death (Quran 9:5) and for jews it was humiliation through subjugation (Quran 9:29). However, Brutal adversaries (muanidin), as per the dictates of the law of ‘اتمام الحجة’ (itmam-e-hujjah), were required to be slain wherever found because they were also guilty of spreading anarchy (fasad-fil-arz). Examples of people who were killed as a result were Uqbah Ibn Abi Muit, Nadr Ibn Harith and Abu Azzah – the captives of the battles of Badr and Uhud. Similarly, at the conquest of Makkah, certain others were also slain as an exception to the general amnesty granted because of their open enmity. The captives of the Banu Quraiza were also in the same category of muanidin who met a fate decided by an arbitrator appointed by themselves: their men were slain and their women and children were sold as slaves.
For a detailed discussion on the law of itmam-e-hujjat, please see:
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