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Apparent Contradiction In Quran Regarding Intercession Or Shafat
There seems to be contradiction in quran(including ghamidi sb interpretation) regarding intercession or shafaat,
In some verses it is clear that There would be NO intercession at all,
e.g ,
Verse 254 of sura baqarah:
“O you who have believed, spend from that which We have provided for you before there comes a Day in which there is no exchange and no friendship and no intercession. And the disbelievers – they are the wrongdoers. “.
And in other places too, its mention clearly that there would be No intercession at all,.
But on the other hand ,there are verses too which says that there will be intercession on condition i.e only when Allah will permit that who can intercede (shafaat) and he will only speak truth,
Like holyquran says:
On that Day shall no intercession avail except for those for
whom permission has been granted by (Allah) Most
Gracious and whose word is acceptable to Him. (20:109)
So in first type of verses why Allah categorically said that THERE WOULD BE NO SHAFAAT , should it not be said that “There will be no SUCH SHAFAAT which can rescue a sinful person , but shafaat will be there” .
So its seems to be clear contradiction,
Kindly help me here, because I am too confuse about it and watched many ghamidi sahb videos on this topic,
Umair zafar
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9 Replies
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Apparent Contradiction In Quran Regarding Intercession Or Shafat
updated 9 months ago
3 Members
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9
Replies
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The verses belong to different stages of the day of Resurrection and accountability. When the people were arrested, no intercession will be accepted. But when their fate will be decided after accountability, intercession on merit will be accepted.
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For details on the concept of intercession in the light of Quran, please refer to the following thread:
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Fo summarized comments, please refer to the following videos:
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Dear @UmerQureshi , I read refrences you provided, let me explain my confusion again ,
I know there will be intercession on the will of Allah ,to whom and for whom He permits ,but still it will be called “shafaat” ,
Then why on other places quran categorically reject shafaat , ?
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Wherever Quran rejects Shafat, it rejects the absolute concept of Shafat where it is generally believed that certain people/saints/deities will have absolute right to intercede on the day of Judgement. Quran rejects this notion quite vehemently and defines the conditions of Shafat on the day of judgement, which are reproduced here:
i) only God has the authority of intercession. Without His permission, no one can intercede for anyone (as per Quran 39:43-44 & Quran 21:26-27).
ii) even after being permitted by God to speak, intercession shall be possible only for those about whom God pleases. No one shall be able to say anything about anyone out of his own will (as per Quran 21:28 & Quran 20:109-110).
iii) the person who is acceptable to God to be interceded for – about him too whatever will be allowed to be said would be the absolute truth (as per Quran 78:38).
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Please also refer to the video below from 1:16:38 to 1:19:44
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Thanks @UmerQureshi bro,
Please consider two statements ,e.g I tell one of my friend Ali , that
Statement 1: I will not rent out my house.
And then other day I tell him:
Statement 2: I will rent out my house on certain conditions.
Will not he say that there is contradiction in your statements?
Bro , this is how quran statements about intercession looks like,
Statement 1:there will be no intercession.
Statement 2:There will be intercession but on certain creteria or conditions.
It will be great if you answer this in this perspective.
JazakAllah
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Although this analogy is not very apt as Dr. Irfan Sahab pointed out that literary language does not work on the principle of Logic, rather it works on how it is spoken and perceived by people speaking it.
When I told my friend that I will not rent out my house: it had a context to it that I wanted to take open market bids on merit before renting it to my friend so that I can come up with an appropriate offer for my friend, if it comes to that.
Then when I told my friend that now I will rent out my house on certain conditions: This is after I got an idea about the market and now I am in a position to set out my conditions so that I do not offer at a loss.
When seen in this context, there is no contradiction between these two statements.
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When Quran rejects intercession, it is to reject the notion that Prophets, saints, idols or anyone for that matter will have any say in the matters of the day of judgement other than God and this is unconditional (here the innate condition already exists that except whom the God wills). And when Quran talks about conditions, those conditons are built on the above mentioned principle that no one will have any authority except God, and if God wills for anyone to speak then Quran elaborates the limitations for anyone whom God will allow to speak on the day of judgement.
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This is a kind of sollogism. Language is not sollogism. An expression comes with its context which may or may not explicity enunciated depending on the understanding of the reader who is alreay get himself familiar with the author. Secondly, if i say, i will never forgive, you, and at some later stage, i forgive you, it is not contradiction.
Thirdly, as I told earlier, these two statements of Quran belong to different stages. Take another example, Quran says that on that day of resurrection there will be no blood relation between the peopole فلا انساب بینھم and then tell us that the parents and children will be together in the paradise.
Forthly, as Umar saheb indicated, the negation of intercession in absolute terms means no intercession against God’s will and approval. For example, if i make a statement to my student, “Tomorrow there will be a test and everyone must be present, i won’t accept any excuse.” But what if the excuse is genuine and reasonable, like some student met an accident. Therefore we say that there is noting absolute in meaning. As soon as a kalam is initiated, it contains its limitations and exceptions in it.
So if you take Quranic statements like the statements in the law books, you may not be able to appreciate a literary Kalam which does not accept such restrictions.
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Thanks @irfan76 and @UmerQureshi bro,
Your answers helped me alot , so its all about literature, JazakAllah, for both of you.
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