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  • Prophet Jesus's (sws) Use Of Word Ibn-e-Adam In Bible

    Posted by Shaharyar Sabeeh on December 23, 2023 at 1:53 pm

    Assalamualaikum!

    I got a confusion while watching the last part (Zameemah) of Nuzool e Maseeh where Ghamidi Saheb gives his interpretation of the dream of The Holy Prophet (SAW).

    Does Jesus Christ refer to himself as Ibne Adam throughout the Bible? Or does Ibne Adam mean any man or men in general?

    Shaharyar Sabeeh replied 4 months, 1 week ago 2 Members · 2 Replies
  • 2 Replies
  • Prophet Jesus's (sws) Use Of Word Ibn-e-Adam In Bible

    Shaharyar Sabeeh updated 4 months, 1 week ago 2 Members · 2 Replies
  • Umer

    Moderator December 25, 2023 at 5:15 am

    Ibn-e-Adam refers to any man (as in son of Adam) but in that particular passage Jesus (sws) was referring to himself as Ibn-e-Adam. The context usually makes it clear whether it is used in general sense or in a specific sense.

    You can listen to it again in the video below from 20:13 to 23:34

    https://youtu.be/ZRy1cv5leYU?si=ARRCU_t6QBgdAiv8&t=1213

  • Shaharyar Sabeeh

    Member December 25, 2023 at 5:31 am

    How did that adalat come over the munkireen of Isa (AS)? As per my knowledge having heard Ghamidi Saheb, they were invaded by other people in 70 CE (I’m not aware exactly by whom).

    If it’s right, then it is clear that he was referring to those invaders as Ibne Adam and not himself, since those humans were too after all, ‘Ibne Adam’.

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