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Extramarital Relations Using Contraceptives
I would like to understand this matter in its principle.
If it is assumed that it can be 100% guaranteed that a man and woman can have physical intimacy without getting pregnant, what is Islam’s reasoning for it still being unlawful? If the purpose of the institution of marriage is to provide a strong foundation for children, why is it required for a man and woman that can 100% guarantee a child will not be conceived?
This is one of the main objections I hear from non-Muslims that they make to argue that Islam (and other religions) are outdated. That they prohibited consensual extramarital relationships because at those times it wasn’t possible to 100% guarantee a child will not conceived. But that is now possible (or could be in the near future).
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