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  • Reference Of Bani Ismael From Quran

    Posted by Faraz Azam on January 2, 2021 at 1:04 am

    I always hear from Ghamidi Sahib mention of term ‘Bani Ismael’, but this term in whole Quran is never used anywhere . I want to know from where we can infer that people of Arabs at that time were pure Bani Ismael? And does similar law also applicable to Bani Ismael as Bani Israel got as a qaum.

    Instead everywhere People of Arab whom our Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was addressing were called by O People/Momin/Mushriqeen/Munafiqeen/Muslim/ummat . But never Allah used term Bani Ismael(what is the reason?).

    Why we can’t infer that when Allah Ta’ala is addressing Muslim as a ummat its not only been addressed to the people of Arab of that time but also those who in future are going to become Muslims from other part of the world.

    Because there are ayats like this ummat is the best one chosen for Mankind, or this Ummat’s resposiblity is towards rest of the World as Shohada. If we consider Shohada to be only those who were the Momins of that time, then now no muslim in rest of the world will be responsible for such kind of role?

    Interestingly when Allah Ta’ala addresses O’ Bani Israel remember I did this and that in Surah Baqarah as reminder to the Jewish people of Arab, they were also not the same set of People whom Allah Ta’ala took Shahaadat because those Jewish people were settled in Arab for long time without any nabi or rasool after Isa AS (I think for around 500 years). Still Allah Ta’ala is expecting from them with same responsibility as the initial Bani Israel . Following same principle why can’t muslim people settled in other non arabic countries in current time will be also expected to have same responsibility as those from whom Allah took Shahaadat as Ummat.

    $ohail T@hir replied 3 years, 1 month ago 2 Members · 4 Replies
  • 4 Replies

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