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Why Is Pre Historical Tawattur Different?
From what I have discussed it seems that the tawattur of Jews is not strong because it was in pre historical times. The question is what underlying principle is different? How did the bidah creep in?
How is it possible that some people started doing sabbath on Saturday and then everyone did? How is it possible that some started drinking wine in ceremony then everyone did?
How do bidaat come into any culture? How did the bidah of giving adhan into a child’s ear occur?
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Why Is Pre Historical Tawattur Different?
updated 3 years, 1 month ago
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The distinguishing factor in ijma and tawatur is that it provides us with a way to go back in time and pinpoint the sources of any innovations or corruptions. This obviously can only take place in the light of history.
Muslims spread to different regions of the world right in the beginning of Islam. If everyone across the globe agree on the same practice and the same practice gets transmitted generation after generation without any gaps, then there’s no possibility of any corruption.
The Jewish community, on the other hand, has always been a closed community. If an innovation or a corruption occurred in that community, over time it was possible for it to become a norm. Since it was a pre-historic time period, we can’t go back in time and pinpoint the sources of such innovations or corruptions. Similar innovations took place within Muslims at regional levels, however, they can be clearly spotted.
Adhan in newborn’s ear is an example of such an innovation. We can go back in time and pinpoint that the practice started around 4 Hijra. There are also disagreements in this regard among scholars of the same jurisprudence, let alone ijma of all scholars. Details about this practice can be found here:
For reference, here’s your previous thread about the same topic.
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