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Child Marriage, Waiting Period Quran 65:4
In a discussion I tried to answer someone in which it is argued that Quran legislates pre-puberty marriages. My answer is as follows & I will like if someone can add content to it
Dear xxx, it’s a very good question! There existed many Arab traditions beforehand & therefore legislation was sent for them. For instance in Quran you will find a legislation that divorce will not occur if someone orally called his wife ‘mother’ thrice! This was a tradition of Arabs! So child bethroned to some male was a custom in reality still it is, especially in India, Africa & Burma. It is not necessarily an Islamic thing. Cousin are bethroned to their cousins at a very young age (although consummation doesn’t occur). Now the X3 month period is there for any death doubt! A male can be killed in a war far off or has gone missing …or his death news is yet to travel to homeland (news is getting transferred via horses those days). Such tenure is therefore prescribed to know of any pregnancy in adults or ascertain husband’s death!
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Child Marriage, Waiting Period Quran 65:4
updated 1 year, 5 months ago
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In normal circumstances, the iddat is three menstrual cycles; however, if a woman does not menstruate because of advancing age or in spite of reaching puberty, then the Quran has specified in Surah Talaq that this period would be three months. The Quranic words are وَاللَّائِي لَمْ يَحِضْنَ. In the Arabic language, the word لَمْ is used for total and strong negation. Hence the expression cannot connote those girls who have not started to menstruate; it can only connote girls who have not menstruated in spite of reaching the age.
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Sir what about child Marriages?
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Quran doesn’t speak of child marriage, but the traditional school of thought thinks it otherwise.
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Sir,
Scholars belive age of 9. If the girl has not yet reached puberty then she can get married.
Do you belive the same.
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Sir
I was told by someone that the verb in 65:4 is in the jussive sense which is a grammatical mood which expresses some form of intention or hope. Therefore, the phrase ‘lam yahidna’ is better translated as ‘those who did not (negation in the past tense) menstruate’, albeit they may still expect or intend to given the jussive mood.Is this correct?
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This form of the verb is to show a definite sense and complete negation. So, it means they did not menstruate at all despite the age.
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Thanks
I have one quick question, Is Ghamidi Sahab’s argument same as the one I posted above?
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Al Bayan:
“The actual words are: وَالّٰٓـِٔيْ لَمْ يَحِضْنَ. In the Arabic language, the word لَمۡ is used for total and strong negation. Hence the expression cannot connote those girls who have not started to menstruate; it can only connote girls who have not menstruated in spite of reaching the age.”
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Moreover, the word al-Nisa here is enough to confirm that this is about the women, not the minor girls.
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