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  • If It Is Not Obligatory To Have Children Then Why Homosexuality Is Forbidden

    Posted by Muhammad Talha on February 22, 2022 at 10:51 am

    Is having children obligatory in Islam? Because Ghamidi Sb’s arguments about marriage are mostly based on the fact that Marriage is there so that the next generation can have something that they can call home and grow up in a safe and stable environment. But what if a couple doesn’t want children? And then what’s the meaning of marriage? Or Gay couples who have nothing to do with the children? How can this be explained?

    Kindly guide.

    Jazak Allah

    Dr. Irfan Shahzad replied 2 years, 1 month ago 3 Members · 6 Replies
  • 6 Replies
  • If It Is Not Obligatory To Have Children Then Why Homosexuality Is Forbidden

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar February 23, 2022 at 1:56 am

    To have children is the decision and choice of husband and wife. God has given no injunction or does not make it obligatory of have children. What Ghamidi sahib says is what usually happens. To marry and to have no children is exceptional. Gay marriage is unnatural and not allowed in Islam.

  • Muhammad Talha

    Member February 23, 2022 at 4:49 am

    So, is the argument against gay marriage only it being ‘unnatural’? Because any other ramifications can’t be seen when two people engage in it with full consent of each other and do no harm to anyone.

  • Umer

    Moderator February 23, 2022 at 7:17 am

    Since religion revolves around Tazkiya (purification) of both mind and body and Homosexuality is forbidden in Islam because it is a form of ‘Fawahish‘ which is antithesis of Tazkiya. Therefore, just like all other forms of ‘Fawahish‘, Homosexuality too is forbidden in Islam.

    For details on Fawahish, please see:

    Discussion 60441 • Reply 60476

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    Regarding whether it is farz to have children or not, please refer to the following responses by Ghamidi Sahab:

    Discussion 34180 • Reply 35812

    Discussion 34180 • Reply 34204

    Discussion 34180 • Reply 34205

    • Muhammad Talha

      Member February 23, 2022 at 11:12 am

      Most of the times when we see things forbidden in Islam, they carry some really strong reasoning which in most cases is ‘violating the right of others’. Same goes in the case of shirk, qatal, Zina, khayanat etc.

      But what’s the logical explanation of forbidding something that takes place with the consent of two individuals and poses no threat to anyone and doesn’t violate anyone’s rights?

    • Umer

      Moderator February 24, 2022 at 6:35 am

      To understand this point further, please refer to the following video from 7:26 to 9:21 and from 12:56 to 20:08

      https://youtu.be/Oefc0_3uwRA?t=446

  • Dr. Irfan Shahzad

    Scholar February 25, 2022 at 3:34 am

    The ultimate aim or object of Deen is Tazkiya or purification of the person. Violating the rights of others comes when one is in contact with others. but in this case man is putting himself into filth which is violation of Tazkiya.

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