Dr Shehzad Saleem has done a whole session on this. Maybe one of the moderators can give you the clip. It totally explains this topic

Please ask @UmerQureshi or @faisalharoon

I’m sure they can help. I saw the clip but don’t have it

Yes the above is the clip on masturbation by Dr Shehzad Saleem very well explained.

The opinon of ghamdi on masturbation is totattly wrong. The correct opinion is of imam al shafi , ibn abbas and molana maududi that its haram aur atleat disliked as stated in surah al mominoon that sexual pleasure can only be sought through wives or slave girls . And its not about that sexual relationship are prohibitted except marriage its wrong interpretation but the correct is that the use of sexual organs except wives or slave girls is prohibitted that includes all forms of sexual plesure including masturbation that its prohibited and crossing gods limits. The holy prophet told us in sahih bukhari that those who cannot marry should fast

Masturbation is prohibited as all forms of sexual pleasure are prohibitted except wives and slave girls as mentioned in surah al mominoon . This is the opinion of imam al shafi imam malik and ibn tahmiyyah and imam abu hanifa. The opinion of ghamdi sb is totally wrong . I would suggest you that please read article of molana maududi about istimna bil yad ka sharai hukam in rasail wa masail jild 2 page 153 onwards . Those not able to marry should fast to dimish their sexual desires as said in sahib bukhari. The opinion of abdullah bin abbas and ata bin abi rabah as reported in musannaf abdur razak and sunan al kubra bayhaki are also given below in pictures.

@faisalharoon

@UmerQureshi

Respected Brothers,please clear my doubts regarding 3 aspects.I would highly appreciate.Thanks

1)how would one interpret the Hadith where Prophet (pbuh) said to a young group of men to marry and those who cannot, fast

2)And second hadith in which group of sahabas insisted to prophet to make castration halal for them as they were away from their wives,Prophet pbuh could easily have said that masturbate.

3)In accordance to all of this,is (Quran e Pak70:30) also excluding the person who masturbates?and only including wives and concubines.Aren’t we misunderstanding what Quran is saying as it has only permitted wives and concubines to use private parts and not anyone not even that person himself.

Since it is not considered Haraam, does that break the fast?

I believe that it basically shatters the soul of fasting but does masturbation actually break the fast? Or does releasing pleasure as a result of close contact (not intercourse) would break the fast?

@faisalharoon

Firstly, why are you asking this question? Think about its negative effects on your brain and body then ask yourself is it beneficial for you or not? Then ask for Halal or Haraam.

Assalam u Alaikum,

I read the explanation provided by Ghamidi Sb. (as translated by Dr. Shehzad Saleem in the link above shared by @Haseeb : http://www.monthly-renaissance.com/issue/content.aspx?id=1242)

It is my understanding that two issues need to be addressed in the explanation provided by Ghamidi Sb. on this matter (Alternatively, I may need to review his explanation in detail and ponder further).

Firstly, he translates the Quranic verses 23:5 – 6 (Chapter 23, verses 5 & 6) as, ‘except for wives and slave-women, one cannot appease one’s sexual urge with any other individual‘. I lack expertise in Arabic grammar. I am also unsure whether this is how Ghamidi Sb. has originally translated the verse in Urdu. Regardless, it is my understanding that the phrase that I have underlined is, strictly speaking, an extension to the actual translation of verse 6 even after we include Ghamdi Sb.’s technical analysis. That is, it is an implied meaning of verses 5 and 6. It attempts to add clarity for the convenience of the readers that everyone else except for the wives and the “right-hand possession” has been excluded. Accordingly, it should be included in brackets to distinguish Quran’s words from that of the translator (I would appreciate corrections if I have erred).

There was a reason for making a note of the above point. It seems that the implied meaning of verse 7 may have been overlooked. When verse 7 is read in conjunction with verses 5 and 6, it implies that our private parts are strictly guarded only if or when we satisfy our sexual desires in lawful ways. The lawful ways of satisfying sexual desires are those that occur (in divinely instituted family settings) with wives or that were temporarily allowed with “right-hand possessions” given the circumstances of the time, in accordance with verse 6.

The logical query that follows is whether or not, after considering the entirety of an individual’s circumstances, one has satisfied his sexual desire with permissible individuals only (e.g. wife) or lack thereof. Focussing on what is exclusively permitted makes irrelevant all other third parties as well as modes of sexual activities that may not involve wives or may involve persons other than wives. In contrast, Ghamidi Sb.’s construction of these Quranic verses allows individual activities of sexual pleasure that do not involve the exclusively permitted persons thereby leaving room for transgression in accordance with verse 7.

This critical exercise is for academic purposes. It is not intended to judge or offend others. I am not an expert in religious studies. Allah knows best.

Regards,
Abbas

میرے خیال میں اوپر کی تمام تر عمدہ بحث کو سمجھنے کا محور ایک چیز ہے

وہ یہ کہ جب کسی چیز/فعل کے متعلق قرآن و سنت خاموش ہو تو پھر کیا کیا جائے؟

اصلِ اباحہ جاری کریں جیسا کہ سلمان بھئی نے غامدی صاحب کا نقطہ نظر رکھا

یا اصل حظر جاری کریں جیسا دئگر دوستان کر رہے

ایک اور مثال لیجیے

اللہ سے نبی کا واسطہ دے کر دعا مانگنا

قرآن و سنت سے خالی ہے

تو اب یہ جائز مانا جائے

یا حرام

اگر اوہر ہم جائز مان کر آئے ہیں تو یہاں بھی جائز مانیں

اور اگر اوپر بھی حرام یا مثلِ حرام تو یہاں بھی وہی کام کریں گے

جناب غامدی کس کے قائل ہیں

تہنمائی درکار