We see that Khalifas like Abu Bakr, Umar etc. did implemented the Sharia at a state level. It is also permissible to force someone to perform Salah as mentioned in the hadith to go as far as beating. So Why can a Islamic government not enforce Sharia without the compliance of its people?
Religion contains directives for individuals to implement in their lives. Some of these directives becasue of their nature, can only be implemented by society through their elected leaders. And these directives are very clear i.e. Zakat, Jihad and implemetation of islamic punishments. There are no other directives that can be implemented by the rulers. Abu Bakar (rta) and Umar (rta) both implemented the very directives, in addition to their special directive of itmam-e-hujjah as well. And implementation of Salah and Zakat in Quran Surah Tauba originally relates to itmam-e-hujjah. But states in later times can use certain administrative measures to ensure their implementation as well.Please see for details:
Regarding Hadith on beating kids for Salah, work related to these narrations in Hadith Project has lead to conclusion that such narrations do not hold any merit to be ascribed to Prophet Muhammad (Sws). Please see for details:
Even if someone ascribes these narrations to Prophet Muhammad (Sws), they mean something else when seen in the context of the institution of family. Please see:
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